NS1-Wellness, Fitness, and First Aid

What term is used to refer to exercise in which sufficient amounts of oxygen are delivered to the muscles?
1. Isotonic
2. Isometric
3. Aerobic
4. Anaerobic
What term is used to refer to exercise in which adequate amounts of oxygen are not being delivered to the muscles?
1. Aerobic
2. Anaerobic
3. Isokinetic
4. Isometric
What term is used to refer to exercise in which muscles contract but there is very little body movement?
1. Isotonic
2. Isometric
3. Isokinetic
4. Anaerobic
The length of time you can hold a particular weight or the number of times you can lift it is a measure of your muscular _______.
1. strength
2. flexibility
3. composition
4. endurance
Flexibility, which is using the entire range of motion of a muscle, is best measured by which of these exercises?
1. Sit-ups
2. Push-ups
3. Sit and reach
4. Running
What term is used to refer to exercise that builds muscle strength using resistance without joint movement?
1. Isotonic
2. Isometric
3. Isokinetic
4. Anaerobic
What term is used to refer to exercise that builds muscle strength using resistance with joint movement?
1. Isotonic
2. Isometric
3. Isokinetic
4. Anaerobic
Select the set that best completes this sentence: Regular exercise _______ risk of cardiovascular disease, _______stress and anxiety, and _______ bone strength.
1. decreases, helps control, increases
2. improves, aids, relieves
3. reduces, improves, helps control
4. helps control, aids, relieves
Which exercise is NOT classified as anaerobic?
1. Weightlifting
2. Sprinting
3. Push-ups
4. Bike riding
Which exercise is NOT classified as aerobic?
1. Cross country skiing
2. Gymnastics
3. Running
4. Swimming
Which of these statements about cardiorespiratory endurance is NOT accurate?
1. The cardiorespiratory system includes the heart, blood vessels, and lungs.
2. Shortness of breath and a high heart rate after light exercise are symptoms of poor cardiorespiratory endurance.
3. During exercise, the heart pumps 20-25 quarts of blood per minute.
4. People with good cardiorespiratory endurance recover slowly after hard exercise.
Which of these exercises places the highest demands on cardiorespiratory endurance?
1. Swimming
2. Gymnastics
3. Baseball
4. Volleyball
Which of these exercises rates the highest in all four categories of fitness: cardiorespiratory, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility?
1. Hockey
2. Calisthenics
3. Soccer
4. Tennis
The feeling of physical and emotional well-being after exercising is partly the result of the body’s production of what substance?
1. Adrenalin
2. Melatonin
3. Endorphins
4. Insulin
Isotonic, isometric, and isokinetic exercises all improve the body in what way?
1. Building cardiovascular endurance
2. Improving flexibility
3. Increasing oxygen supply to cells
4. Toning and building muscles
Weight training is considered a type of all these exercises except which one?
1. Isotonic
2. Anaerobic
3. Aerobic
4. Isokinetic
To receive benefits from an exercise program, what is the minimum number of times you should exercise per week?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
What does the “talk test” measure?
1. Goal setting
2. Stress level
3. Exercise duration
4. Exercise intensity
Which of these statements about heart rate contains an error?
1. Maximum heart rate, which is 200 beats per minute for teenagers, is your heart’s highest speed after exercising to the point of exhaustion.
2. To measure your target heart rate during exercise, stop and take your pulse for 6 seconds, then multiple by 10.
3. Your target heart rate is lower than your maximum heart rate, and is expressed in a range such as 135-170.
4. The number of times your heart beats per minute measures exercise frequency.
For cardiorespiratory improvement, exercise within your target heart range for _____ minutes, but to burn fat, exercise at least _____ minutes.
1. 15-20; 30
2. 30-40; 20
3. 20-30; 30
4. 30-45; 45
Which one of these descriptions about warming up is accurate?
1. For the calf stretch, stand in a stride position, then place the heel of your back leg on the ground.
2. To stretch your hamstring, reach over your extended leg and bounce gently.
3. To properly do the hand grasp, hold both arms overhead while clasping your hands, then bend first to one side and then the other.
Which of the following steps in finding your target heart rate contains an error?
1. Take your pulse, counting the number of pulse beats for one minute to find your resting heart rate.
2. Subtract your resting heart rate from 200.
3. Multiply the resulting number by .5 to find the low range of your target heart rate.
4. Multiple the resulting number by .8 to find the high range of your target heart rate.
Your warm-up period could include ________, which are light gymnastic exrcises that develop strength and grace.
1. low impact aerobics
2. calisthenics
3. weight bearing exercises
4. isometrics
Which of these pieces of advice would be least likely to help someone stick with an exercise program?
1. Exercise with a friend or group.
2. Set high goals immediately.
3. Make fitness part of your daily routine just like eating or going to school.
4. Choose a convenient place to exercise so you can get there quickly and easily.
The Physical Fitness Test has all of the following benefits except which one?
1. The PFT helps you understand and appreciate physical fitness.
2. The PFT fosters competition as you compare yourself to others and endeavor to surpass them.
3. The PFT gives you a method for achieving personal satisfaction through striving and achieving.
4. The PFT boosts your self-confidence through your improved health and appearance.
Which of these exercises is not part of the Physical Fitness Test (PFT)?
1. Curl-up
2. Sit and reach
3. Push-up
4. Shuttle run
All of the following basic rules for PFT preparation contain errors except which one?
1. Warm up and cool down for approximately 5 minutes.
2. Incorporate the curl-up into your warm up routine.
3. Spend at least 20 minutes on conditioning.
4. Exercise at least 5 times a week.
Select the set that best completes this sentence: To perform the curl-up, sit up from a lying position until your ______ touch your ______.
1. elbows, thighs
2. hands, feet
3. head, knees
4. chin, thighs
Most often, how many miles is the run/walk event of the Physical Fitness Test?
1. .75
2. 1
3. 1.25
4. 1.5
The events of the physical Fitness Test and the Presidential Physical Fitness Test have which of these events in common?
1. Curl-ups
2. Sit and reach
3. Pull-up
4. Shuttle run
Calories measure what?
1. The amount of energy required to make the body produce one gram of fat
2. The amount of energy the body uses to burn one gram of fat
3. The amount of energy required to run basic functions (heartbeat, breathing, etc.) for one hour
4. The amount of energy required to raise one kilogram of water one degree Celsius
Metabolism may be defined as the_______.
1. absorption of food molecules into the bloodstream
2. movement of food through the digestive organs
3. collection of chemical reactions that convert food into energy
4. process of breaking down food into components that the body can use
Too much cholesterol harms the body by _______.
1. sticking to artery walls and restricting blood flow
2. interfering with the body’s ability to regulate sugars
3. blocking the body from absorbing nutrients
4. inhibiting the ability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen
Nutrients that occur naturally in plant and animal tissue and are required for proper function of the body are called what?
1. Proteins
2. Carbohydrates
3. Vitamins
4. Minerals
Natural chemical elements of the Earth used by the body to supply necessary nutrition are called what?
1. Proteins
2. Carbohydrates
3. Vitamins
4. Minerals
Nutrients that are made of amino acids and that maintain body tissues and supply energy to the body are called what?
1. Proteins
2. Carbohydrates
3. Vitamins
4. Minerals
What substances may be described as starches from plant material that are broken down by the body into glucose to use for long-term energy?
1. Proteins
2. Fats
3. Simple carbohydrates
4. Complex carbohydrates
What substances are sugars that are quickly digested and absorbed in the blood?
1. Proteins
2. Fats
3. Simple carbohydrates
4. Complex carbohydrates
What substances help maintain body temperature, serve as a source of stored energy, and carry vitamins A, D, E, and K to the cells?
1. Fats
2. Simple carbohydrates
3. Complex carbohydrates
4. Proteins
What type of fat does not melt at room temperature and raises blood cholesterol level?
1. Monounsaturated
2. Polyunsaturated
3. Saturated
4. Triglycerides
What is the primary source of unsaturated fat?
1. Meat
2. Vegetables
3. Dairy products
4. Processed foods
Which of these statements about cholesterol is NOT accurate?
1. HDLs (high density lipoproteins) help the body get rid of extra cholesterol.
2. LDLs (low density lipoproteins) deposit extra cholesterol in the arteries where the accumulations can interrupt blood flow.
3. Fiber helps the body get rid of extra cholesterol by binding to it and carrying it out of the body.
4. The body does not produce its own cholesterol but requires it for healthy nerves, cells, and digestion.
Which of these is NOT a monounsaturated fat and is therefore a poor dietary choice?
1. Peanut oil
2. Canola oil
3. Coconut oil
4. Olive oil
The basic units of protein are called what?
1. Complex carbohydrates
2. Simple carbohydrates
3. Cholesterol
4. Amino acids
Which of these foods is NOT a source of complete protein?
1. Beans
2. Fish
3. Milk
4. Chicken
Complete protein foods are those that _______.
1. contain fiber as well as amino acids
2. supply all eight essential amino acids
3. bind with cholesterol and take it out of the body
4. furnish the proteins that the body uses as short-term energy
Which of these statements about vitamins, minerals, and water contains an error?
1. The body requires large amounts of certain minerals such as calcium, potassium, and sodium (which are called macrominerals), but only small amounts of others such as iron.
2. Because 60-70% of the body is water (which carries nutrients, aids in digestion, lubricates joints, and allows many chemical processes), we would die within a few days without it.
3. Vitamins are taken into the body either by being dissolved into the tissues by water or by being absorbed into the intestines with the help of fats.
4. The most recent standards developed by the government that regulate vitamin and mineral requirements are called the RDA (Recommended Daily Allowance).
Which of these vitamins or minerals is paired incorrectly with its function?
1. Iron: healthy blood
2. Calcium: strong bones and teeth
3. Vitamin B complex: energy conversion
4. Vitamin D: maintenance of eyes and skin
What percentage of the human body is made of water?
1. 60-70
2. 40-50
3. 30-40
4. 20-25
The most common cause of malnutrition is _______.
1. poverty
2. unawareness of nutritional needs
3. diseases that prevent absorption of nutrients
4. crop failure from famine or drought
A person who repeatedly overeats then vomits in an attempt to be thin is suffering from _______.
1. amenorrhea
2. anorexia
3. bulimia
4. obesity
A person with _______, though significantly underweight, fears being fat and therefore has an aversion to food.
1. bulimia
2. anorexia
3. hypoglycemia
4. bingeing disorder
To reduce total fat intake to a healthy level, avoid all _______ (the most recent addition to nutritional labels), which is found in food with solid plant fat such as stick margarine and cream fillings.
1. monounsaturated fat
2. polyunsaturated fat
3. saturated
4. trans-fat
According to the guidelines of the National Academy of Sciences, total fat intake should be _______ percent or less of your total calories.
1. 15
2. 25
3. 30
4. 35
Most nutritionists recommend a diet of at least _______ percent carbohydrates.
1. 40
2. 50
3. 60
4. 70
Most Americans receive more than two-thirds of their protein from _______ but most of it should come from _______.
1. animal sources, plant sources
2. fatty meats, lean means
3. simple carbohydrates, complex carbohydrates
4. saturated fats, monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats
Approximately _______ of Americans are overweight.
1. 1/2
2. 1/3
3. 1/4
4. 2/3
Too much _______ can lead to high blood pressure.
1. calcium
2. iron
3. protein
4. sodium
The average person should have no more than _______ grams of salt in a day.
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6
Too little _______ can lead to osteoporosis, or loss of bone density, because the body draws it from the bones to meet its needs.
1. fluoride
2. iron
3. calcium
4. protein
To lose one pound, you must burn _______ calories more than you consume.
1. 1750
2. 2200
3. 3000
4. 3500
The number of calories your body burns when completely at rest is known as _______.
1. body mass index
2. basal metabolic rate
3. fat burning ratio
4. calorie expenditure
What is the LOWEST safe body fat percentage for most women?
1. 15%
2. 12%
3. 10%
4. 8%
What is the LOWEST safe body fat percentage for most men?
1. 3-4%
2. 6-8%
3. 10-12%
4. 15-20%
The body fat reserve that can become a problem for many of us is called _______.
1. essential fat
2. storage fat
3. saturated fat
4. unsaturated fat
The body fat reserve necessary for good health is called _______.
1. essential fat
2. storage fat
3. saturated fat
4. unsaturated fat
George has 14% body fat. His body fat percentage is _______.
1. athletic
2. good
3. acceptable
4. indicating he needs help
Anna has 26% body fat. Her body fat percentage is _______.
1. athletic
2. good
3. acceptable
4. indicating she needs help
If you measure the number of calories your body burns at complete rest, you have measured your _______.
1. cardiovascular rate (CVR)
2. calorie disposal rate (CDR)
3. metabolic burn rate (MBR)
4. basal metabolic rate (BMR)
Which of the following foods is NOT widely believed to be part of the food trio that protects against certain cancers and promotes healthier hearts and immune systems?
1. Fruits
2. Grains
3. Fish
4. Vegetables
Most of the protein in your diet should come from _______.
1. meat products
2. plant products
3. dairy products
4. healthy fats
Breakfast should provide up to _______ of your daily nutritional needs.
1. one-fifth
2. one-fourth
3. one-third
4. one-half
Which of these groups of foods provides healthier nutrition?
1. Hamburger, soft drink, candy bar
2. Grilled chicken sandwich, milk shake, chips
3. Salad bar, low-fat milk, fries
4. Turkey on whole wheat, orange juice, unbuttered popcorn
Which of the following is a high nutrition density snack?
1. Potato chips
2. Doughnut
3. Soft drink
4. Bagel
Which of the following is NOT a good guideline for eating nutritiously at a fast food restaurant?
1. Select the salad bar instead of fries.
2. Have a high protein drink like a milkshake.
3. Choose grilled chicken instead of a hamburger.
4. Taste food before adding extra salt.
The human body’s need for calcium reaches its peak at _______.
1. adolescence
2. early childhood
3. infancy
4. adulthood
If you want to lose weight, the number of calories you consume each day must _______.
1. be fewer than the number your body needs
2. be at least equal to the number that your body needs
3. be counterbalanced by calories used in aerobic exercise
4. be derived from complex carbohydrates and proteins
Which of the following is a dieting myth?
1. Starchy foods have fewer calories per ounce than fats.
2. Omitting a meal is likely to make you overeat at the next one.
3. Caffeine can make your blood sugar drop, making you hungry.
4. You can lose weight by eating only one food, like grapefruit.
Which of these statements about weight management is NOT accurate?
1. Children, pregnant women, and athletes have higher metabolic rates than other people.
2. When you decrease your calorie intake, your basal metabolic rate goes down.
3. People can quickly lose a lot of weight just by exercise alone.
4. Losing weight by fad dieting usually is only temporary.
What condition exists when someone weighs 20 percent or more above the appropriate weight?
1. Morbidity
2. Obesity
3. Overweight
4. Hypoglycemia
Most pregnant women should gain how much weight?
1. None
2. 10-15 pounds
3. 18-20 pounds
4. 25-35 pounds
Runners who increase their carbohydrate intake and reduce exercise before a competition are doing what?
1. Resting
2. Hydrating
3. Carbohydrate loading
4. Carbo-energizing
Which of these diseases is NOT correctly paired with its associated substance?
1. Diabetes: iron
2. Hypoglycemia: insulin
3. High blood pressure: sodium
4. Heart disease: fat
A food that has had nutrients added to replace those lost in processing is called _______.
1. emulsified
2. enriched
3. fortified
4. pasteurized
A food that has nutrients added to it that it does not usually contain is called _______.
1. emulsified
2. enriched
3. fortified
4. pasteurized
A food that has an additive to keep fat from floating to the top is called _______.
1. emulsified
2. enriched
3. fortified
4. pasteurized
An orange juice label has the expression “Vitamin C-20%.” What does that mean?
1. The juice is composed of 20% vitamin C.
2. After you drink a serving, you will still need 80% more vitamin C.
3. You need to drink 20% of a serving to get the amount of vitamin C you need in a day.
4. A serving contains 20% of the vitamin C the average person needs in a day.
A shopper can get a good idea of a packaged food’s freshness from the _______.
1. list of ingredients
2. date on the package
3. nutritional information
4. picture on the package
Which of these statements about food labels is correct?
1. If sugar is an ingredient in a food, it may appear as different names but they all end in -ase.
2. The ingredients, except for the additives, are listed alphabetically.
3. The Daily Values for different nutrients based on a 2,000 calorie a day diet are displayed.
4. The FDA does not set standards for descriptions such as “high fiber” or “good source of calcium,” but these can still be helpful to the consumer.
Which one of the following is NOT a good way to judge whether or not to buy a particular food?
1. Nutrition
2. Advertising
3. Freshness
4. Price
What term is used to refer to the science of maintaining good health and preventing disease?
1. Sanitation
2. Sterilization
3. Hygiene
4. Purification
Sanitizing the hands is especially important following which of these actions?
1. Eating
2. Using the toilet
3. Preparing food
4. Handling machinery
Military history shows that _______ percent of hospital admissions have resulted from disease and non-battle injuries.
1. 20
2. 40
3. 60
4. 80
All of the following actions are effective in preventing food poisoning except which one?
1. Using wooden chopping blocks instead of ones made of plastics
2. Cooking food at adequately high temperatures
3. Washing cloths, towels, and utensils frequently
4. Carefully handling high-risk foods such as poultry and eggs
Which of the following suggestions will help optimize sleep and alertness in the field?
1. Since you may not be able to sleep as well in the field, several days before you go, shorten the amount of sleep you allow yourself.
2. Avoid taking catnaps since they will make you groggy and impede your performance for a long time after you wake up.
3. Learn and practice relaxation techniques to help you stay alert during dull stretches of watch.
4. Share tasks with other cadets so that everyone can receive adequate amounts of sleep.
An esprit de corps, which means _______, can help minimize feelings of stress and isolation of cadets.
1. patriotism
2. common emotions
3. group morale
4. psychological understanding
Poor sanitation can result in _______, an intestinal disease accompanied by stomach pain and diarrhea.
1. malaria
2. dysentery
3. colitis
4. typhoid
For how many minutes should you boil water to disinfect it?
1. 5-10
2. 15-20
3. 30-35
4. 60
An ampule of what substance is used to purify canteen water?
1. Hydrogen peroxide
2. Iodine
3. Chlorine
4. Isopropyl alcohol
For how many total minutes should a tablet of iodine be left in canteen water to purify it?
1. 15
2. 20
3. 25
4. 30
All of the following actions will contribute to the hygiene in the field except which one?
1. Using chemical toilets in the bivouac area
2. Daily washing of face, armpits, genital area, and feet
3. Eating or drinking only items that have been prepared in galvanized containers
4. Washing mess kits and eating utensils in treated water or disinfectant solution
Poor personal hygiene can result in an infestation of _______, tiny wingless parasitic insects that live in the hair of warm-blooded animals.
1. lice
2. ticks
3. scabies
4. fleas
What is the recommended minimum length of time in seconds for adequate hand washing?
1. 20
2. 30
3. 45
4. 60
Which of the following statements about adequate hygiene around animals is NOT accurate?
1. Washing hands after touching animals is necessary, as is washing and disinfecting any scratches or bites.
2. Everything that an animal touches should be cleaned frequently, including floor areas.
3. Since bedding and carpets can be allergen traps, special attention should be given to keeping these clean.
4. In the field, handling, petting, or approaching an animal is harmless because wild animals do not carry disease.
Which of these substances is preferred to disinfect drinking water in canteens?
1. Chlorine ampules
2. Iodine tablets
3. Tincture of iodine
4. Hydrogen peroxide
Which one of these physical responses is a result of stress?
1. Decreased heart and breathing rates
2. Increased blood flow to the muscles and brain
3. Activation of the immune system
4. Contracted pupils
What term is used to refer to the body’s involuntary reaction to immediate threat or danger?
1. Defense impulse
2. Aggression stimulus
3. Distress instinct
4. Fight or flight response
A recurring, disabling, intense headache that is often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances is known as a _______ headache.
1. cluster
2. tension
3. migraine
4. sinus
Which of these is NOT generally a symptom of depression?
1. Disorganization
2. Anhedonia
3. Feelings of hopelessness
4. Heightened powers of concentration
What term is used to an over-eagerness to be successful that sometimes is accompanied by agitation?
1. Anxiety
2. Depression
3. Anhedonia
4. Emotional overreaction
Which one of these circumstances is a major life change that causes stress among young people?
1. Peer pressure to use alcohol, tobacco, or drugs
2. Divorce of parents
3. Lack of exercise
4. Perception of being unsafe at home or at school
Which one of these suggestions about managing stress is least effective?
1. Be very critical of yourself so that you can show your best face to others, thereby preventing their criticism.
2. Accept the inevitability of stressful situations and resolve to control your reaction to them.
3. Face problems as they occur instead of putting them off and prolonging your anxiety.
4. Every day do something that you find relaxing, even if you have a heavy agenda or busy schedule.
Which of these relaxation techniques involves sitting quietly and emptying your mind by concentrating on your breathing or on an image, word, or sound?
1. Quick calming response
2. Visualization
3. Meditation
4. Progressive relaxation
Which of these behaviors of group leaders is least effective in lessening group stress?
1. Monitoring and tracking progress of tasks
2. Keeping the stress of participation in the decision-making process away from them
3. Demanding too little from group members
4. Over-emphasizing faults and setting up win-lose situations between them and their followers
Which of the following statements about depression is NOT accurate?
1. Depression affects a person physically and behaviorally as well as mentally.
2. Symptoms of depression can last for months, years, or even a lifetime.
3. The source of depression can always be traced to a specific experience.
4. Depression is a real illness, and one’s potential for suffering from it may be biological.
A technique of dealing with stress by deeply contemplating a religious or philosophical subject is known as _______.
1. visualization
2. meditation
3. relaxation
4. actualization
Another name for manic-depressive illness is _______ disorder.
1. bipolar
2. anxiety
3. panic
4. fatigue
All of the following are effective suggestions for dealing with stress overload except _______.
1. scheduling time for sleep, study, unhurried meals, and relaxation to ensure none are neglected
2. making several changes in your life at one time to increase adaptability
3. keeping a journal describing and analyzing stressful situations to improve next time
4. dealing with problems immediately to shorten periods of anxiety
If you know someone who shows signs of depression, you should react in all the following ways except which one?
1. Respect his or her feelings and do not pursue the issue if they push you away.
2. Take time to listen and offer support by listening.
3. Give him or her specific suggestions for coping and for lifting their spirits.
4. Suggest he or she seek help if you do not see improvement.
Which of these statements about anxiety is NOT accurate?
1. Generalized anxiety indicates a more serious condition than anxiety over something specific.
2. A person who experiences excessive anxiety or anxiety attacks should seek professional help.
3. Anxiety attacks occur for no apparent reason, and cause a person to feel extreme stress, dizziness, rapid heartbeat, and nausea.
4. Before facing an anxiety-causing situation, repress your anxiety after visualizing the worst case scenario.
Which of these statements describes both a drug and a controlled substance?
1. It is a chemical that causes a physical or behavioral change.
2. It is considered harmful and usually subject to legal restriction.
3. It has a medical use and is usually addictive.
4. Its manufacture or sale is illegal.
Which term is used to refer to taking a legal drug for medical reasons but not as recommended or prescribed?
1. Drug use
2. Drug misuse
3. Drug addiction
4. Drug abuse
What is the most widely used and abused drug in the United States?
1. Marijuana
2. Cocaine
3. Nicotine
4. Alcohol
Which of these drugs is a depressant?
1. Nicotine
2. Cocaine
3. Alcohol
4. Amphetamines
What is the leading cause of deaths among 15- to 24-year olds?
1. Drug overdose
2. Accidents caused by drinking and driving
3. Suicide while under the influence of drugs or alcohol
4. Homicides resulting from drug or alcohol
What term associated with alcohol and tobacco refers to the fact that their use often leads to further drug abuse?
1. Corridor
2. Portal
3. Gateway
4. Window
What term is used to refer to the condition where the body builds a resistance to a drug, causing a need for larger amounts for the same effect?
1. Addiction
2. Tolerance
3. Dependence
4. Subsistence
What condition results when the body develops a resistance to a drug and needs the drug to function normally?
1. Abuse
2. Misuse
3. Tolerance
4. Dependence
What organ of the body develops cirrhosis, a disease in which heavy alcohol consumption produces scar tissue?
1. Brain
2. Esophagus
3. Liver
4. Heart
Approximately what percent of car crashes involving teenagers are related to alcohol use?
1. 35
2. 50
3. 75
4. 90
What term is used to refer to the interaction of drugs and subsequent increase in the effects of each?
1. Synergism
2. Conversion
3. Hypersensitivity
4. Interface
A blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of _______ percent is legally drunk in all states.
1. 0.5
2. 0.75
3. 0.08
4. 0.1
All of the following statements describe marijuana except which one?
1. Its main psychoactive substance, THC, stays in body fat for at least one month.
2. Sometimes it contains dangerous substances like pesticides and molds, even PCP.
3. It boosts physical activity, energy, mental alertness, and self-confidence.
4. Marijuana’s chemicals distort hearing, taste, touch, smell, and the sense of time and space.
Which of these drugs is incorrectly paired with its medicinal use?
1. Marijuana: cancer treatment nausea
2. Narcotics: pain relief and insomnia
3. Amphetamine: convulsions
4. Codeine: coughs and pain relief
How can cocaine cause death?
1. Disrupts the brain’s control of the heart and breathing
2. Damages renal blood vessels, causing kidney failure
3. Poisons the liver and keeps it from filtering the blood
4. Ruptures the blood vessels in the brain, causing uncontrollable bleeding
If a drug, drink, or other substance speeds up the activity of the mind or body, it is considered to be a _______.
1. depressant
2. stimulant
3. narcotic
4. steroid
Which of these substances is a leading cause of death because a user often becomes tired, hopeless, depressed, and sometimes confused enough to accidentally overdose?
1. Narcotics
2. Amphetamines
3. Alcohol
4. Barbiturates
Which of these symptoms are associated with heroin overdose?
1. Hallucinations, high blood pressure, kidney failure, bleeding of the brain
2. Anxiety, tremors, delirium
3. Slow, shallow breathing, clammy skin, convulsions
4. Paranoia, seizure, high blood pressure
Which of these drugs puts the user in a state of sedation and short-term memory loss lasting up to eight hours?
1. Phencyclidine hydrochloride, “angel dust”
2. Heroin, “smack”
3. Methamphetamines, “crystal meth”
4. Rohypnol, the “date rape” pill
Which of these substances is/are available only by prescription in the U.S., though often appearing in over-the-counter supplements?
1. Steroids
2. Morphine
3. Heroin
4. Barbiturates
Which of these is the drug in tobacco that may act as a stimulant and cause addiction?
1. Butylamine
2. THC
3. Nicotine
4. Phenol
Which of these statements about second-hand smoke is NOT correct?
1. Breathing second-hand smoke increases the risk of lung cancer and heart disease.
2. Second-hand smoke is defined as smoke from a burning cigarette but not the smoke exhaled by the smoker.
3. Smoke from an idling cigarette has even more tar and nicotine than inhaled smoke.
4. Children of smokers have twice as much pneumonia and bronchitis as children of non-smoking parents.
Which of these substances is NOT one of the three most deadly ones in tobacco smoke?
1. Nicotine
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Tar
4. Acetone
Which of these possible withdrawal symptoms is incorrectly paired with its drug?
1. Nicotine: headache, nausea, vomiting, irritability
2. Barbiturates: depression, disorientation, long periods of sleep
3. Heroin: cramps, sweating, panic, chills, nausea
4. Cocaine: depression, irritability, constant craving for the drug, fatigue, insomnia
How does the tar in burned tobacco harm the body?
1. It displaces the oxygen from the red blood cells and interferes with the blood supply to the muscles and organs.
2. It constricts the blood vessels, cutting down on the blood flow to the hands and feet.
3. It collects in the liver where it causes scarring and interferes with the liver’s filtering of toxins from the body.
4. It sticks to the cilia in the lungs so they cannot block harmful particles.
Crack cocaine is so highly addictive that a first-timer user has a one in _______ chance of becoming an addict.
1. three
2. five
3. seven
4. ten
Which of these statements about alcohol intoxication is NOT accurate?
1. A drinker’s BAC can increase even after the person passes out.
2. People who are intoxicated will pass out before drinking a fatal amount.
3. First-time drinkers can die from alcohol poisoning.
4. Severe intoxication can cause death because the heart and breathing stop.
BAC measures the number of milligrams of ethanol per _______ milliliters of blood.
1. 10
2. 100
3. 1,000
4. 10,000
What acronym is used to refer to the process of determining what to do when faced with riding with a driver who has been drinking?
1. REACT
2. DEFINE
3. SOLVE
4. DECIDE
What is another term used for substance dependency?
1. Tolerance
2. Synergism
3. Addiction
4. Susceptibility
The Good Samaritan law protects primarily which of these groups?
1. People who do not provide assistance to accident victims
2. People who, acting in good faith, administer first aid correctly
3. People whose accidents cause harm to bystanders
4. People who are employed as emergency workers
For which of these reasons should first aid kits contain face shields?
1. To increase the effectiveness of mouth-to-mouth resuscitation and CPR
2. To keep debris away from the victim’s eyes and breathing passages
3. To protect the rescuer against infectious diseases
4. To aid vision in accidents where there is heavy smoke
Which of these sets correctly corresponds to the ABCs of emergency priorities?
1. Assessment, bleeding, consciousness
2. Airway, bleeding, communication
3. Assessment, broken bones, circulation
4. Airway, breathing, circulation
Which of these instructions describes the Heimlich maneuver?
1. Stand behind the victim, position your fists above his or her navel, and give quick backward and upward thrusts.
2. With the reclining victim’s head tilted back, pinch the nostrils together, completely cover the mouth with yours, and give two full breaths.
3. On a reclining victim, with the heels of your hands, press his or her breastbone down 1.5-2 inches at a quick continuous rate.
4. Stand on a dry, non-conducting piece of material, and push the victim off the source of electricity using a broom or chair.
Where should you place your fingers to feel for a pulse in the carotid artery?
1. On the inside of the wrist
2. Alongside the Adam’s apple in the neck
3. At the junction of the thigh and the torso
4. At the lower temple beside the ear
Slurred speech, blurred vision, paralysis on one side of the body, and sudden, severe headache are common symptoms of _______.
1. cardiac arrest
2. shock
3. poisoning
4. stroke
What type of bleeding is characterized by steadily flowing dark blood?
1. Hemorrhage
2. Arterial
3. Venous
4. Capillary
If you apply continuous direct pressure to treat bleeding, within how many minutes should the bleeding begin to slow?
1. 5
2. 15
3. 20
4. 30
Pressure points are places on the body where major arteries are close to the skin surface and pass _______.
1. over one of the larger muscles
2. over a bone
3. near the union of the extremities and the torso
4. near the major organs that the arteries nourish
What is the preferred way to position victims suffering from shock?
1. Standing, with support, to improve circulation
2. Reclining, with head slightly higher than the rest of the body
3. Sitting, with head lowered between the knees
4. Lying on the back, with feet higher than the heart
Which one of these directions for treating fractures cannot be completed correctly with the words “Do not”?
1. _______ try to set the bone.
2. _______ put the victim in a car to hurry to the hospital.
3. _______ splint the fracture in the position in which you found it.
4. _______ allow the victim to move.
Which of these statements about shock is NOT correct?
1. Someone can die of shock even if his or her injuries would not have been fatal.
2. Signs of shock include unusual stillness, very slow breathing, and dry, flushed skin.
3. Someone treated for a severe injury should always also be treated for shock, even in the absence of symptoms.
4. Shock harms the body by disrupting circulation and preventing adequate blood flow to the brain.
For maximum recovery from a muscle, joint, or bone injury, apply an ice pack for _______ minutes every 2-3 hours for the first 2-3 days after the injury.
1. 5-10
2. 10-15
3. 15-20
4. 20-30
Burns are classified as first, second, or third degree according to which of these factors?
1. Depth of the burn
2. Size of the affected area
3. Source of the burn
4. Distance from the heart and lungs
Which of these statements about burns contains an error?
1. All electrical burns are classified as third degree.
2. Second degree burns, which look moist and ooze fluids, are often the most painful type of burn.
3. Burns from sunburn are always classified as first degree burns.
4. Third degree burns often cause shock but little or no pain.
All of the following are actions that should never be done when treating burns, except which one?
1. Putting ice or ice water on a burn
2. Elevating the burned part
3. Treating a burn with butter, oil, grease, or ointment
4. Using cotton or cottony bandages on a burn
Which of these should be the first action after separating a victim from the source of an electrical current?
1. Call the EMS.
2. Treat the two burn sites as third degree burns.
3. Treat the victim for shock.
4. Make sure the victim is breathing.
Which one of these statements about carbon monoxide is NOT correct?
1. It produces a strong, noxious odor, but exposure to it in high concentrations can kill a person in a few minutes.
2. It is produced by charcoal, wood, and coal fires, by gasoline engines, and by gas, oil, and kerosene appliances.
3. When it is inhaled, it replaces oxygen in the blood and starves the body of oxygen.
4. Common ways that people are exposed to it include using portable heaters, lanterns, and camp stoves inside tents and campers.
Which of these steps should you perform first in attempting to help a victim of inhalation poisoning?
1. Move the victim into the fresh air or ventilate the area.
2. Take several deep breaths and hold your breath as you go into the poisonous environment.
3. Make sure you have help, or call for help.
4. Check the victim’s airway, breathing, and circulation.
Select the statement about oral poisoning that is correct.
1. If the victim has swallowed a corrosive substance, induce vomiting immediately.
2. By giving instructions over the telephone, a poison control center can usually treat most poisonings.
3. Make sure the poison victim is sitting straight up throughout the treatment period.
4. Vomiting can be effective for up to one hour after the ingestion of the poison.
A person with a wound caused by a rusty or dirty object, or an animal is at risk for _______ unless he or she has had a shot within the past 10 years.
1. meningitis
2. polio
3. tetanus
4. rabies
If the clothing of soldiers and athletes provides _______ so that air can circulate, heat injuries are less likely to occur.
1. ventilation
2. hydration
3. insulation
4. condensation
Which of these symptoms of heat stroke is least common?
1. Fast, weak pulse
2. Sweaty, clammy skin
3. Mental confusion
4. Dizziness, nausea, and vomiting
Which of these actions is NOT recommended for treating hypothermia?
1. Removing wet clothing and placing the victim beside a campfire or against another person
2. Keeping the victim awake
3. Giving the victim warm liquids gradually, excluding alcohol
4. Warming the victim in a hot bath or electric blanket
In which of these conditions do ice crystals form in body tissues after exposure to freezing temperatures?
1. Frostbite
2. Hypothermia
3. Immersion/trench foot
4. Cold injury dehydration
Which of these symptoms or treatments does NOT apply to both frostbite and immersion/trench foot?
1. The injuries result from exposure to temperatures below freezing.
2. Redness and blistering may appear on the skin.
3. The victim should be warned that he or she will feel pain as the affected tissue is rewarmed.
4. The affected part should be warmed gradually by being covered with loose dry material.
Rattlesnakes, copperheads, and cottonmouths may be identified by all of the following physical traits, except which one?
1. Slit-like pupils
2. Deep pits between their nostrils and eyes
3. Round heads
4. Long, hollow fangs
Which one of these treatments for bites or stings is NOT correct?
1. To treat an animal bite, first take care of the bleeding, cleanse the wound with soap and water, then flush the wound with water for five minutes.
2. To treat a bee or wasp sting, remove any remaining part of the stinger by scraping the skin with a knife or fingernail.
3. To remove a tick that you cannot pull off easily with your fingers, put Vaseline over the tick and wait for it to let go.
4. To treat a snakebite to the arms, legs, feet, or hands, tie a tourniquet between the bite and the victim’s heart.
All of these reactions to an insect bite or sting generally indicate an allergic reaction, except which one?
1. Hives
2. Itching and redness
3. Difficulty breathing
4. Nausea and vomiting
Which one of these statements about heat injuries does NOT contain an error?
1. In high temperatures, people who work outside are susceptible to dehydration, but not people who are outside exercising.
2. Since salt is also lost through perspiration, you should consume extra salt in hot weather.
3. High humidity increases the risk of dehydration because sweat does not evaporate as rapidly.
4. In heat exhaustion, large amounts of fluids are lost, causing less blood flow to vital organs and resulting in a type of stroke.

NS1-Wellness, Fitness, and First Aid

Quiz