Naval Science II

The longest period of peace in world history was known as the
1. Golden Age of Athens.
2. Crusades.
3. Pax Romana.
4. Mare Nostrum.
The capital of the Byzantine Empire was at
1. Macedonia.
2. Constantinople.
3. Rome.
4. Athens.
King Philip II sent his Spanish Armada against England in 1588 for which of the following reasons?
1. To stop English privateers from raiding his ships
2. To retain Spain's supremacy on the seas
3. To bring England back into the Catholic church
4. All the above
What Italian state became a great commercial and naval power during the Crusades?
1. Venice
2. Carthage
3. Rome
4. Spain
What group of Europeans became the leaders of Western culture after the Greeks?
1. Persians
2. Romans
3. Phoenicians
4. Moors
For many centuries after the fall of Rome in 476 A.D., Europe suffered in the turmoil of the Dark Ages while the Middle East, North Africa, and Eastern Mediterranean fell under the control of the
1. Italian states.
2. Moslems.
3. Byzantine Empire.
4. Spanish.
Our alphabet is based on the alphabet of what ancient people?
1. Cretans.
2. Romans.
3. Phoenicians.
4. Greeks.
The ability of a nation to defend her own sea communications and to deny the enemy the use of the sea to carry on a war is called
1. sea control.
2. strength of the seas.
3. maritime strength.
4. sea power.
Early warships, which were crewed by trained fighting men and propelled by oars as well as sails, were called
1. galleys.
2. boats of war.
3. frigates.
4. trading ships.
The "Age of Discovery" was referred to as being a new age of
1. sea power.
2. privateering.
3. economic growth.
4. trade relations among nations.
Which of the following were English "seadogs"?
1. Sir Francis Drake, Sir John Hawkins, and Martin Frobisher
2. Don John, Ali Pasha, and Mark Anthony.
3. Bartholomeu Diaz, Vasco da Gama, and Christopher Columbus
4. Lord Admiral Charles Howard, and the Duke of Medina Sidonia
National wealth was measured by the amount of treasure in the royal vaults. The total wealth of the world was limited. To become richer and more powerful, a nation had to make some other nation poorer through capture of its trade and colonies. This was
1. Mercantile Theory.
2. Hanseatic League.
3. Mare Nostrum.
4. Pax Romana.
The second group to master the sea were the
1. Cretes.
2. Romans.
3. Greeks.
4. Phoenicians.
The first to seek new sea routes to the Indies and the Orient were the
1. English.
2. Portuguese.
3. Spanish.
4. Dutch.
What famous war was fought to secure control of the Turkish Straits in order to insure Greek control of the Aegean-Black Sea trade?
1. The Crusades
2. The Trojan War
3. The Punic War
4. The French and Indian War
After the Battle of Salamis of 480 B.C., the great period of peace during which theater, sculpture, writing, and philosophy flourished is known as the
1. Western Civilization Age.
2. Age of Alexander the Great.
3. Golden Age of Athens.
4. Renaissance.
In the battle of Lepanto in 1571, Christian forces defeated the
1. Moors.
2. Romans.
3. Ottoman Turks.
4. Greeks.
What treaty in 1763 ended the war in North America between France and England?
1. Treaty of Salamis
2. Treaty of the Spanish Armada
3. Treaty of Paris
4. Treaty of Yorktown
What city is known as the birthplace of democracy in government?
1. Carthage
2. Macedonia
3. Rome
4. Athens
The first people known to use sea power were the sailors and traders of ancient
1. Greece.
2. Phoenicia.
3. Crete.
4. Rome.
The Punic Wars were between what two major powers?
1. Arabs and Christians
2. Rome and Carthage
3. Greece and Persia
4. Spain and England
With the Treaty of Paris in 1763, the war in North America between France and England ended. Who controlled the world's seas at that time?
1. France
2. Portugal
3. England
4. Spain
When did Congress authorize the beginning of the Marine Corps?
1. 4/18/1778
2. 6/22/1777
3. 7/4/1775
4. 11/10/1775
When did Congress finance the start of the Colonial Navy?
1. 10/13/1775
2. 6/18/1778
3. 11/20/1777
4. 5/14/1776
England imposed a tax on the colonies in order to
1. raise money to pay its debts from the war with France.
2. stop the colonies from becoming independent.
3. discourage trade between England and the colonies.
4. None of the above.
The American Revolution began at
1. Yorktown, Virginia.
2. Wilmington, North Carolina.
3. Trenton and Morristown, New Jersey.
4. Lexington and Concord, Massachusetts.
The Peace of Paris in 1783 gave the Americans a territory that extended West
1. to the Mississippi River
2. to Oklahoma
3. to California
4. to the Pacific coast
The battle at Yorktown in 1781 lasted
1. three weeks
2. 10 days
3. two months
4. 15 days
Instead of meeting General Burgoyne in Albany in 1777, General Howe made an ill-advised decision to capture which city?
1. Savannah
2. Philadelphia
3. Boston
4. New York City
Who was in charge of the American troops in the battle of Lake Champlain in 1776?
1. Benedict Arnold
2. George Washington
3. John Paul Jones
4. Esek Hopkins
Although General Arnold defeated the British at Lake Champlain in 1775 was not a conventional "victory" (he lost all his ships) the battle benefited American troops by
1. Saving Yorktown
2. Retaking Fort Ticonderoga
3. Slowing the British advance enough to allow the Americans time to regroup and train troops
4. Severely damaging the British Fleet
The Declaration of Independence was signed July 4,
1. 1775
2. 1789
3. 1776
4. 1763
The end of fighting in the colonies was marked by the British loss at
1. Yorktown
2. Ticonderoga
3. Saratoga
4. Lake Champlain
Who was the first commander of the Continental Navy?
1. Esek Hopkins
2. Benedict Arnold
3. John Paul Jones
4. George Washington
The peace treaty ending the Revolutionary War was signed in
1. Paris
2. Philadelphia
3. New York
4. London
Who led Maine backwoodsmen in the first American capture of a British ship?
1. Benedict Arnold
2. Jeremiah O'Brien
3. George Washington
4. John Paul Jones
On 14 September 1814, a night-long British naval bombardment of Fort McHenry guarding Baltimore
1. inspired Francis Scott Key to write "The Star-Spangled Banner."
2. aided in lighting the skies over Baltimore.
3. allowed President Madison and Congress to escape capture.
4. All of the above answers are correct.
Kidnapping of men and forcing them into military service is defined as is defined as
1. impressment.
2. imprisonment.
3. privateering.
4. racketeering.
In 1803, Commodore Preble sent the USS Philadelphia to blockade the port of Tripoli. What happened to this ship?
1. It ran aground and was captured.
2. The USS Philadelphia was destroyed before it reached Tripoli.
3. Other ships joined the blockade.
4. The fuel supply became depleted.
In 1802, President Jefferson sent a squadron of ships to the Mediterranean Sea to/for
1. discuss trade secrets.
2. establish a base.
3. protect American trade.
4. determine a market for shipping.
With Napoleon defeated in Europe, Britain was able to send more troops and
ships to American waters in 1814. At this time they made damaging amphibious assaults in the Chesapeake Bay area on
1. Washington, D. C., and Norfolk, Virginia.
2. Washington, D. C., and Baltimore, Maryland.
3. Norfolk and Yorktown, Virginia.
4. Baltimore, Maryland, and Yorktown, Virginia
The largest amphibious landing carried out by U.S. forces during the Mexican War took place at
1. Veracruz under the command of General Winfield Scott.
2. Monterey under the command of Commodore John Sloat.
3. Matamoros under the command of General Zachary Taylor.
4. Yerba Buena (San Francisco) under the command of CDR John Montgomery.
As the result of Jefferson's embargo on raw materials and food to Europe,
1. farmers in the South and West suffered due to a lack of markets for their products.
2. smuggling became widespread, draining tax income from the federal government.
3. American shipping interests in New England suffered economic disaster.
4. All of the above occurred.
During the twenty five (25) major battles between American and British men-of-war, who had the first and probably most famous American victory?
1. Captain Isaac Hull in USS Constitution vs. HMS Guerriere.
2. Captain James Lawrence in USS Hornet vs. HMS Peacock.
3. Captain William Bainbridge in USS Constitution vs. HMS Java.
4. Captain Stephen Decatur in USS United States vs. HMS Macedonian.
The U. S. Congress declared war on England on
1. 29 December 1814.
2. 20 August 1812.
3. 18 June 1812.
4. 3 January 1813.
Those citizens of the United States that lived inland
1. requested that the navy be built in their area.
2. didn't want to be taxed for a coastline navy.
3. wanted the navy to clean up the coast.
4. felt the navy should be used in shipping.
When the War of 1812 began, how many naval ships did the British have?
1. 600
2. 1,000
3. 900
4. 300
When Congress passed the Navy Act in 1794, the bill stated that naval shipbuilding would stop if
1. the United States made peace with Algiers.
2. the shipbuilders voted for a strike.
3. all of the wood supply used to build ships ran out.
4. a settlement was reached with France.
When the Bashaw of Tripoli refused to cooperate in the release of U.S. crewmen, Commodore Preble decided to
1. use force.
2. stay put for awhile.
3. bribe him.
4. call on France for assistance.
The chief task of the U.S. Navy between 1815 and 1860 was
1. fighting the Barbary pirates.
2. engaging in anti-slavery patrols.
3. protecting America's growing overseas commerce.
4. adapting to technological developments.
The profitable trade carried on during the 18th to mid-19th centuries among among New England, West Africa, and the West Indies was called the
1. slave trade.
2. immigrant uphill run.
3. triangular trade.
4. packet downhill run.
In 1803, when Commodore Preble assembled his forces in the Moroccan port of Tangier, the Emperor of Morocco was impressed by Preble because of his
1. display of strength.
2. lack of harshness.
3. gentlemanly behavior.
4. disregard for pain.
When the War of 1812 began, how many naval ships did the Americans have?
1. 26
2. 16
3. 196
4. 46
The Barbary States economy was based on
1. hard work and pride.
2. credit.
3. borrowed money and loans.
4. piracy and tribute payments.
How many frigates did President Washington convince the U.S. Congress to build?
1. Four
2. Two
3. Five
4. Three
The naval battle that kept the Great Lakes and Northwest Territory for America was fought and won on 10 September 1813 by
1. General William Henry Harrison at the Battle of the Thames.
2. Commander Robert Barclay in the Battle of Lake Ontario.
3. Thomas Macdonough in the second Battle of Lake Champlain.
4. Oliver Hazard Perry in the Battle of Lake Erie.
After the Navy succeeded in reopening the China trade in 1842, the next objective of American maritime and naval interest was to
1. open the trade door to Japan.
2. seek better trade relations with the new nations of Latin America.
3. develop a faster, larger steamship to cross the Pacific.
4. bring an ever-increasing number of immigrants to America to help develop the great Mid-West and Western part of the nation.
In his great adventure story, Moby Dick, Herman Melville wrote about the great New England industry of
1. catching seals for their valuable fur.
2. pirates and their hidden treasure.
3. whaling, for lighting oil, whalebone, and other products.
4. commercial fishing in the stormy waters along the East Coast.
U.S. Naval operations in the Western Hemisphere between 1822 and 1826 were concerned mainly with
1. providing escort for the U.S. whaling fleet.
2. convoying merchantmen along the U.S. East Coast.
3. establishing an anti-slavery patrol at the mouth of the Mississippi delta.
4. wiping out piracy in the Caribbean-West Indies area.
During the War of 1812, the U. S. Navy
1. had men and ships which were inferior to those of the Royal Navy.
2. was clearly outnumbered by the Royal Navy.
3. was able to protect the nation's maritime frontiers.
4. was successful in disrupting British naval and maritime operations.
What was the name of the U.S. ship Commodore Preble sent to recapture or destroy USS Philadelphia?
1. Intrepid
2. USS Revere
3. USS Washington
4. USS Williams
After the Civil War, the U.S. whaling industry stopped being of much importance in the United States mainly because of the
1. discovery of oil and natural gas in Pennsylvania.
2. changing styles in dress and availability of suitable substitute materials.
3. rapid reduction in the whale population due to improved hunting equipment.
4. loss of many whaling ships to Confederate raiders.
What famous battle took place after the treaty ending the war of 1812 had been signed in Europe on Christmas Eve 1814?
1. The Battle of New Orleans.
2. Invasion of Washington D.C.
3. The Second Battle of Lake Champlain.
4. The Battle of Baltimore.
Since colonial days, the most important commercial fish species for Massachusetts fisherman has been the
1. haddock.
2. herring.
3. lobster.
4. codfish.
The beginning phase of the Marine Hymn, "From the Halls of Montezuma to the shores of Tripoli," refers to USMC actions, respectively, in the
1. Quasi-War with France and the War with Tripoli.
2. War of 1812 and the Algerian War of 1815 to 1816.
3. Mexican War and the War with the Barbary States, 1801 to 1805.
4. War with the Barbary States and Mexican War.
All of the below are a result of the British government's orders in council EXCEPT
1. exports to England were limited.
2. British subjects could not buy American-built ships.
3. Britain was prohibited to trade in the West Indies.
4. Americans could not trade in the West Indies.
Which Navy vessel did the British take four crewmen from in 1807?
1. USS Constitution
2. USS United States
3. USS Hornet
4. USS Chesapeake
In 1804, Commodore Preble tried to convince the Bashaw of Tripoli to
1. release the U.S. crewmen.
2. call a truce.
3. give up the war.
4. surrender.
What action did France take in response to President Madison's action?
1. Declared war on Russia for supporting America
2. Lifted all decrees against American vessels
3. Fired on American vessels
4. Declared war on vessels from England and American
President Jefferson did not favor building large seagoing ships because
1. building materials were too expensive.
2. he believed the Navy should only protect the American coastline.
3. he didn't want to use up their valuable fuel supply.
4. he decided wars should be between European countries only.
What year did the War of 1812 end?
1. 1814
2. 1815
3. 1816
4. 1812
The first regular, scheduled ship service for passengers, mail, and freight between New York and England was provided by the
1. Black Ball packet ships.
2. frigates.
3. clipper ships.
4. New England topsail schooners.
When using the conversation skill with a subordinate, which of the following is probably the best to use to start a conversation?
1. Private affairs
2. Work
3. Health
4. Athletics
As a result of the Chesapeake affair, Jefferson had Congress try to stop the drift toward war by
1. establishing a naval patrol along the American coast.
2. enlarging the army.
3. authorizing construction of more naval vessels.
4. stopping all exports to Britain and France.
Between 1808 and 1811, how many American citizens were forced into the Royal Navy?
1. None
2. Less than 600
3. More than 6,000
4. Less than 6,000
The three principal cargoes carried, in order, on the New England West Africa-West Indies trade circuit were
1. manufactured goods, lumber and salt fish, and raw materials.
2. rum, slaves, and molasses.
3. molasses, rum, and slaves.
4. lumber and salt fish, naval stores, and raw materials.
Who cried out the immortal words "Don't give up the ship!" after being mortally wounded in battle during the War of 1812?
1. Captain James Lawrence, Chesapeake vs. Shannon
2. Captain Oliver Hazard Perry, Niagara vs. Detroit
3. Captain William Bainbridge, Constitution vs. Java
4. Captain Steven Decatur, United States vs. Macedonian
Giving in to demands for tribute and ransom usually
1. ends the problem.
2. will help start peace talks.
3. leads to more demands.
4. None of the above are correct.
Who was the youngest man to reach the rank of captain in the short history of our Navy?
1. Benjamin Stoddert
2. William Bainbridge
3. John Barry
4. Stephen Decatur
The Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo
1. ended the Mexican War in February 1848.
2. set the Rio Grande River as the U.S.-Mexican border.
3. recognized U.S. annexation of the New Mexico-Arizona Territory and California.
4. All of the above answers are correct.
During their peak years, most clipper ships were used as
1. "China clippers" hauling luxury goods from Canton to New York.
2. passenger-cargo ships from the East Coast to California during the Gold Rush.
3. trans-Atlantic immigrant-passenger carriers.
4. fast cargo-freighters from the East Coast to Panama.
The officers serving under Commodore Preble didn't like him at first because he
1. too easygoing.
2. was short tempered.
3. was very strict.
4. did not care for the outdoors.
When James Madison became President in 1809 he
1. declared war on France.
2. declared an import embargo against harassing nations.
3. President James K. Polk saw an opportunity to satisfy the nation's "manifest destiny."
4. Texas had been admitted to the Union before the Rio Grande River had been established as the state's southern border.
The basic reason that the United States and Mexico went to war in 1846 was that
1. Mexico did not recognize the Treaty of Cahuenga between the Mexican defense forces in California and the American Armed Forces which had forced them to surrender.
2. an incident between U.S. and Mexican border troops resulted in a number of American casualties.
3. President James K. Polk saw an opportunity to satisfy the nation's "manifest destiny."
4. Texas had been admitted to the Union before the Rio Grande River had been established as the state's southern border.
The most beautiful and fastest sailing ships ever to cross the seas were the
1. frigates.
2. New England topsail schooners.
3. Black Ball packets.
4. square-rigged clippers.
Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning naval and maritime matters after the Algerian War of 1815-16?
1. The United States kept a Mediterranean Naval Squadron
2. A U.S. Navy squadron operated from a base at Port Mahon,
3. The United States signed treaties with the Barbary states that
4. The Navy ceased all operations in the Mediterranean Sea and
Although the United States Congress outlawed American vessels from taking part in the slave trade as early as 1808, and defined this trade as piracy as late as 1820, anti-slave laws were seldom enforced because
1. there was no cooperation between the United States and British governments' navies on anti-slavery patrol procedures.
2. political pressures were exerted in Congress by Southern planters and New England slavers, both of whom profited from the trade.
3. smuggling of slaves into the South was carried on by pirates with little local or federal hindrance.
4. all of the above are correct.
The Constitution authorized the United States Congress to
1. establish new businesses.
2. vote.
3. provide and maintain a navy.
4. trade with foreign countries.
The first man to be Secretary of the Navy was
1. Benjamin Stoddert.
2. John Adams.
3. William Bennett.
4. Joseph Lawrence.
The main reason Napoleon sold the Louisiana Territory was to
1. get America on his side to fight England.
2. bankrupt the American Treasury.
3. finance his war in Europe.
4. keep England from controlling it.
Realization of the American "manifest destiny" in 1848 meant that
1. a Pacific naval fleet would be required to defend the West Coast and protect
2. the dream of a country stretching from coast to coast had come true.
3. the American people would have to assume great new responsibilities for a great new territory, as well as reap benefits from it.
4. All of the answers are correct.
The greatest accomplishment of Thomas Jefferson as President was to
1. purchase the Louisiana Territory.
2. declare war on France.
3. maintain a peacetime Navy.
4. end the War of 1812.
When the U.S. did not meet the tribute demands of the Bashaw of Tripoli he
1. stole money from other countries.
2. declared war on the U.S.
3. decided to forgive and forget.
4. chose to verbally attack the U.S.
With the opening of transcontinental transportation and the increase of political problems that would eventually erupt in the Civil War, American interests and imagination turned
1. inward to the great American West with its potential for farms, cattle, mining, lumbering, and railroads.
2. toward Europe as growing American wealth enabled the purchase of more luxury items from the Old World.
3. to the improvement of standards of living and education throughout the land, because all corners of the continent sought to become one great-united land.
4. to the sea for adventure and fortune as trade routes opened to the Orient.
Why didn't the United States build any new ships after the Revolutionary War?
1. There wasn't a need for new ships.
2. The shipbuilders were on strike.
3. The government couldn't tax the people.
4. All the money was spent in the war.
The fast decline of the clipper ships after 1855 was caused by
1. the opening of the transcontinental stagecoach line from St. Louis to San Francisco.
2. completion of a railroad across the Isthmus of Panama.
3. increased use of steamships for transoceanic commerce.
4. All of the above helped cause the decline.
Where did England defeat France to become ruler of the Atlantic Ocean 1805?
1. Off the coast of Brazil
2. Trafalgar
3. The Strait of Gibralter
4. The English Channel
Why did Commodore Preble want to destroy the USS Philadelphia?
1. France was ready to capture her crewmen
2. It was full of holes and was sinking
3. So Tripoli could not use her
4. To protect the citizens on shore
The Bashaw of Tripoli agreed to a treaty that would release captive U. S. crew-members and
1. leave innocent ships alone.
2. the requirement for tribute payments to Tripoli was eliminated.
3. discontinue trade with France.
4. All of the above answers are correct.
After the Revolutionary War ended in 1783, what was one of the first acts of the new American government?
1. To limit the amount of goods shipped to foreign countries
2. To tax incoming foreign shipping
3. To build a United States Navy
4. To stop all shipbuilding
What tactic did the English Navy use to get sailors to serve on their vessels?
1. The British sailors would knock out drunks and carry them to their ship
2. Recruits were told that they would have to serve two years.
3. The sailors were told that the pay was good.
4. To stop all shipbuilding
The name of the last ship left in the navy after the Revolutionary War was the USS
1. St. Louis.
2. Alliance.
3. Victory.
4. Mitchell.
What U.S. ship fought in the two most famous Quasi-War battles with France?
1. USS Lee
2. USS Victory
3. USS Constellation
4. USS Hull
What was the name of the treaty that ended the War of 1812?
1. Treaty of Canada
2. Treaty of Lake Erie
3. Treaty of Ghent
4. Treaty of Peace
Which of the following American warships of the War of 1812 was given the lasting nickname "Old Ironsides" because of the way her heavy oaken hull deflected British
1. USS United States
2. USS Hull
3. USS Constitution
4. USS Constellation
Though the British began negotiations to end the War of 1812 in August 1814, at the same time they began reinforcing their forces in North America and planning
1. win some battles and force the United States to give up important land in the peace treaty.
2. "save face" after suffering many major defeats in the war.
3. surprise the American defenders.
4. overwhelm the United States and regain it for their empire.
On March 25, 1865, General Robert E. Lee launched his final attack on General Ulysses S. Grant's troops. Although Lee had suffered fewer losses, he surrendered a few weeks later because of a lack of
1. food.
2. men.
3. military supplies.
4. All of the above.
Admiral Farragut's Union fleet moved up the Mississippi River in April 1862, taking heavy fire from Fort Jackson and Fort St. Philip. As he moved through the midst of the Confederate defensive fleet, his action caused what city on the river to surrender
1. Natchez
2. Baton Rouge
3. Memphis
4. New Orleans
Why did President Jefferson Davis use privateers during the Civil War?
1. To weaken the Union's economic strength
2. To capture Union commercial goods
3. To destroy the Union's blockade
4. All of the above.
In the first Battle of Bull Run on July 21, 1861, 50,000 troops of both armies fought in northern Virginia not far from Washington D.C. What army won that battle?
1. German Army
2. Union Army
3. Confederate Army
4. None of the above
Fort Jackson and Fort St. Philip were established by the Confederates on the Mississippi River to protect the South's largest and most important port city. What is the name of that city?
1. Natchez
2. New Orleans
3. Baton Rouge
4. Gretna
During the Civil War, Charleston as a seaport city was not as important as it is today. In what state is Charleston located?
1. Pennsylvania
2. Virginia
3. North Carolina
4. South Carolina
The Confederates had designed the CSS Virginia with one purpose in mind. What was their purpose?
1. To sail the rivers of the world
2. To destroy the USS Merrimack
3. To transport cargo
4. To break the Union's blockade
The Emancipation Proclamation of September 22, 1862, freed all slaves in the Confederate States as of January 1, 1863. In 1865 Congress added an amendment to the Constitution which ended slavery in the United States. What was that amendment?
1. Thirteenth
2. Twelfth
3. Eleventh
4. Fourteenth
Jefferson Davis, President of the Confederacy, figured that the Union's blockades would anger at least two major foreign nations that were buying goods from the Confederate States. What were the names of these two major nations?
1. France and Spain
2. Australia and Turkey
3. Poland and Germany
4. England and France
The Battle of Hampton Roads was a major
1. naval battle.
2. army battle.
3. air battle.
4. political battle
Fort Fisher, North Carolina, was a key defensive location for what forces?
1. Union forces
2. European forces
3. Confederate forces
4. All of the above
Admiral Farragut was an outstanding naval commander. What navy did he serve with during the Civil War?
1. Union Navy
2. World Navy
3. Confederate Navy
4. None of the above.
The CSS Alabama was built in a British port for a Confederate agent without the British government's approval. What was its purpose?
1. To disrupt the Union's commercial shipping
2. To ship Confederate goods to foreign ports
3. To damage the Union's whaling fleet
4. To onload war goods from Europe for delivery to the Confederacy
Who commanded the river boat squadron that demolished Fort Henry in February 1862?
1. Commodore Andrew Foote
2. General Ulysses S. Grant
3. Admiral David G. Farragut
4. None of the above
What was the major political difference that caused the Southern states to break away from the Union in 1860?
1. The Democrats lost the election.
2. The South didn't gain a majority of the total vote in 1860.
3. New states were not bieng admitted into the Union as slave states.
4. None of the above.
England and France felt that trade was far more important with the
1. Eastern States of the United States
2. Union States
3. Western States of the United States
4. Confederate States
In 1862, the Union forces developed river gunboats which were the first ironclad vessels in the United States. In what river valley did these vessels see their first action?
1. Hudson River Valley
2. Colorado River Valley
3. Tennessee and Mississippi River Valleys
4. Potomac River Valley
The last ships of the Confederate Navy were destroyed, and the last major Southern port was closed by Admiral Farragut in August 1864 in the violent naval battle of
1. Pensacola (Florida).
2. Pascagoula (Mississippi).
3. Mobile Bay (Alabama).
4. Gulfport (Mississippi).
What was the most pressing economic problem faced by the United States after the Civil War?
1. Providing funds to foreign nations
2. Repaying foreign loans
3. Providing funds to rebuild the nation
4. Providing other nations with food supplies
Who was the general in charge of the Confederate land forces?
1. General George Washington
2. General Ulysses S. Grant
3. General Robert E. Lee
4. General George G. Meade
The CSS Virginia and the USS Monitor fought in one of the greatest naval battles of the Civil War. Their battle opened a new book on naval tactics, but what made both vessels so unusual during this time?
1. Iron armor plating
2. Turret-fired guns
3. Swivel guns
4. All of the above
This general defeated the Union forces at the Battle of Chancellorsville. This general also moved north through the Shenandoah Valley and invaded southern Pennsylvania. What was this general's name?
1. General Lee
2. General McClellan
3. General Meade
4. General Grant
The forces that were protecting Charleston used a kind of war vessel made from old gunboats cut close to the water line and covered with iron plating. They were armed with a charge of gunpowder attached to the end of a long spar that protruded from the bow. They were called
1. CSS Hunley
2. CSS Virginia
3. USS Monitor
4. Davids
The Union Navy established naval blockades from
1. Florida to Louisiana.
2. New York to California.
3. Virginia to Texas.
4. Georgia to Mississippi.
Before the Union forces left Norfolk, Virginia, early in the war, they were ordered to destroy many of their own vessels to keep them from being captured and used later by the Confederates. One of the vessels that was sunk was raised by the Confederacy was the
1. CSS Norfolk
2. USS Virginia
3. CSS Virginia
4. CSS Columbia
The Emancipation Proclamation made a significant difference in European attitudes toward the Civil War. Although it did not stop slavery, it was still a great psychological move. Who gave the Emancipation Proclamation speech?
1. President Abraham Lincoln
2. General Ulysses S. Grant
3. General George Washington
4. President Jefferson Davis
What were some of the advances in naval technology made under Theodore Roosevelt's leadership?
1. Submarines and destroyers
2. Submarines, destroyers, and flight experiments
3. Submarines and flight experiments
4. None of the above
On April 19, 1898, the United States Congress passed four resolutions concerning Cuba. Which of the following statements is NOT one of the resolutions?
1. Withdrawal of all Spanish forces was demanded.
2. The United States declared that it would annex Cuba.
3. The president was directed to use American forces to force these resolutions.
4. Cuba was declared free and independent.
America realized that in order to develop a strong, first-class Navy it had to build and control its ship building projects
1. in selective foreign ports.
2. in shipyards in New York.
3. in centrally located shipyards.
4. in shipyards throughout America.
What was the purpose of the Great White Fleet?
1. A shakedown cruise for the USS Oregon
2. To demonstrate America's seapower to the world
3. To deliver medical supplies and food to the British
4. None of the above
Admiral David Dixon Porter, USN, was instrumental in putting together a brilliant staff and establishing an athletic program. He also organized the engineering and physics departments at which of the following institutions in 1865?
1. U.S. Naval Academy
2. U.S. Naval War College
3. U.S. Naval Institute
4. Harvard University
The naval officer who commanded the American Squadron during the Battle of Santiago de Cuba in July 1898 was
1. Commodore Winfield Schley.
2. Captain Alfred Mahan.
3. Admiral William Sampson.
4. Admiral Pasquale Cervera.
The United States acquired which of the following territories as the result of the peace treaty ending the Spanish-American War?
1. Philippines, Hawaii and Guam
2. Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Guam
3. Guam, Cuba and Puerto Rico
4. Puerto Rico, Guam, and the Philippines
What admiral did the Spanish government order to sail to the Caribbean to defend Cuba and destroy the American fleet in that region?
1. Porter
2. Cadiz
3. Sampson
4. Cervera
What was the name of Commodore Dewey's flagship during the Battle of Manila Bay in May 1898?
1. USS Maine
2. USS Indiana
3. USS Olympia
4. USS Oregon
What country did Panama revolt against during the early 1900s for its independence?
1. France
2. United States
3. Columbia
4. Spain
In 1901, Theodore Roosevelt became president after the assassination of President McKinley. Roosevelt believed that the U.S. Navy should
1. protect the waters around this country.
2. only provide aid when requested by other nations.
3. only provide services for this country.
4. should have as a national goal to build a navy that would be second only to that of Great Britian.
What country launched the prototype of a modern battleship in 1873?
1. England
2. United States
3. France
4. Spain
What are the objectives of the U.S. Naval Institute?
1. To provide advanced professional training that pertains to the U. S. Navy and the navies of the world
2. To provide scientific knowledge about the world's maritime industry
3. To provide training that pertains to world navies
4. To provide advanced professional training pertaining to the U.S. Navy
Battles of the Spanish-American War of 1898 spanned from the Caribbean to
1. the Philippines.
2. Spain.
3. Korea.
4. Japan.
Who has sometimes been called "the real father of all modern navies"?
1. Captain John Paul Jones, USN
2. Captain Alfred Mahan, USN
3. Commodore Stephen Luce, USN
4. Admiral David Porter, USN
Sea power has a profound effect upon a nation's
1. national security.
2. social welfare.
3. commercial prosperity.
4. All the above are correct.
In the late 1890s, America was preparing for war with
1. Korea.
2. Cuba.
3. France.
4. Spain.
The battleship USS Oregon was ordered from the Seattle, Washington, area by
1. Theodore Roosevelt.
2. Franklin D. Roosevelt.
3. Admiral Sampson, USN.
4. Admiral Porter, USN.
In order to maintain high morale in a unit, the following must be present:
1. Discipline and efficiency.
2. A complete understanding of the task at hand.
3. Close supervision by leaders.
4. Complete freedom for all personnel.
The imminent cause of the war with Spain was the explosion that destroyed the American vessel
1. USS Oregon.
2. USS Indiana.
3. USS Maine.
4. USS Massachusetts.
In 1875, a professional association began publishing a leading journal entitled the Proceedings. It criticized the conditions of the fleet, pointing out both the commercial benefits and naval requirements for a strong American maritime force. This journal was published by the
1. U.S. Naval Academy.
2. U.S. Air Force Academy.
3. U.S. Naval Institute.
4. U.S. Naval War College.
Alfred Mahan predicted that America would win its 1898 war in the Caribbean within three months. Other European countries believed that the United States would be defeated in this war by
1. Spain.
2. Cuba.
3. France.
4. Mexico.
The naval officer who led the American Attack Squadron to its great victory over the Spanish Navy in the Philippines in 1898 was
1. Admiral David G. Farragut, USN.
2. Admiral Charles Gridley, USN.
3. Rear Admiral William Sampson, USN.
4. Commodore George Dewey, USN.
What type of problems had to be overcome in constructing the Panama Canal?
1. Malaria and yellow fever
2. Unsafe drinking water
3. Poor sanitation
4. All of the above
In 1914, construction was completed on the Panama Canal. What country built this canal?
1. Spain
2. The United States
3. England
4. France
What effect did economic problems have on the U. S. Navy immediately after the Civil War?
1. Lack of foreign support
2. U.S. Navy's fleet was reduced in size
3. U.S. Navy's fleet increased in size
4. Older officers required more pay
In 1886, Captain Alfred Mahan, USN, was appointed president of the
1. U.S. Naval Academy
2. U.S. Naval Institute.
3. U.S. Coast Guard Academy
4. U.S. Naval War College.
What extension of the Monroe Doctrine of 1823 was proclaimed in 1904?
1. The Treaty of War Plan Orange
2. The Great White Fleet
3. The Treaty of Portsmouth
4. The Roosevelt Corollary
Under Roosevelt's leadership, the United States became
1. a global sea power.
2. a regional sea power.
3. an insular sea power.
4. a substandard sea power.
Which country tried unsuccessfully to build a canal across the Isthmus of Panama from 1881-89?
1. Germany
2. France
3. Britain
4. United States
The book, The Influence Of Sea Power Upon History, 1660-1783, was written by
1. Admiral David Porter, USN.
2. Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan, USN.
3. Admiral David G. Farragut, USN.
4. Commodore Stephen Luce, USN.
What three nations caused problems for the U.S. Navy between 1871 and 1875?
1. France, Spain and Korea
2. England, Spain and China
3. Spain, China and Korea
4. China, Korea and France
Which country agreed to a settlement of the Alaskan-Canadian boundary favorable to America, withdrew its naval squadron from the West Indies, and agreed to turn over exclusive control of the proposed Panama Canal to the United States?
1. France
2. Germany
3. Britain
4. Russia
__________________ in American newspapers, including publication of a letter by the Spanish Ambassador calling President McKinley "weak" whipped up American support for the Spanish-American war.
1. "Ill Treatment Of Cubans By The Spanish Government" essays.
2. "U.S. Military Prepares For War" essays.
3. "How America Is Preparing For War" essays.
4. "Yellow Journalism"
Theodore Roosevelt led his regiment of cavalrymen into battle in 1898 in Cuba. These men were known as the
1. Rough Riders.
2. San Juan Warriors.
3. Santiago Fighters.
4. Fifth Cavalrymen.
The Panama Canal opened and World War I began in the same year. What year did these two major world events occur?
1. 1944
2. 1917
3. 1914
4. 1903
When the USS Maine was sunk by an explosion of unknown origin, it was in what harbor?
1. Manila Bay, Philippines
2. San Juan, Puerto Rico
3. Bremerton, Washington
4. Havana, Cuba
By the turn of the 20th century, Congress had accepted the policy that the United States should have a Navy powerful enough to
1. defend its newly acquired properties.
2. defend the continental United States.
3. defeat any potential enemy.
4. defend any serious oppositions.
What shortcut eliminates some 8,100 miles of the otherwise 13,000 mile trip via sea routes from New York around the southern tip of South America to Los Angeles?
1. Go via the Intercontinental Waterway System
2. Go east around South Africa
3. Go across the Isthmus of Panama
4. Go north across the Arctic Ocean
The USS Maine was sent to Cuba
1. to protect American citizens in Havana.
2. to protect American business interests in Havana.
3. because of the Spanish-Cuban unrest.
4. All of the above
The Assistant Secretary of the Navy credited with building up the U.S. fleet in the late 1800s was
1. David Farragut.
2. John Long.
3. Theodore Roosevelt.
4. David Porter.
The British were torn between two ideas on how to fight the war with Germany. Which of the two plans did they use?
1. Wait for the German forces to attack and then use air power
2. Depend mainly on their Navy and amphibious operations
3. Control the German land forces and aid France with military supplies
4. Place the main British army on the continent to assist France and drive toward the heart of Germany
Who was the commander of German surface forces in the Pacific when war broke out?
1. Vice Admiral Manfred von Richthofen
2. Vice Admiral Reinhard Scheer
3. Vice Admiral Schlichter von Koenigswald
4. Vice Admiral Graf von Spee
What was the main mission of the German fleet?
1. Control the central agricultural areas of Europe
2. Guard the German coast from British attack and defeat Units of the British fleet whenever possible
3. Prevent the escape of British ships into the Atlantic
4. None of the above
During World War I, the U.S. Navy transported two million American troops into Europe without the loss of a single man or ship. What was the U.S. Navy's major mission during World War I?
1. Patrol and convoy duty
2. Deliver ammunition and supplies to the French forces
3. Operate merchant ships
4. Protect the British fleet in the South Sea
What two nations fought in "the Great Naval Battle of Gallipoli/Jutland"?
1. France and Germany
2. Russia and Germany
3. Germany and Britain
4. Britain and Russia
At the beginning of World War I, what country set up a naval blockade that prevented the escape of German ships into the Atlantic?
1. Britain
2. France
3. Russia
4. United States
The American shipbuilding industry built several thousand merchant ships to carry supplies and war material to
1. Germany and China.
2. England and Germany.
3. England and France.
4. Britain and Germany.
What tactic caused Allied shipping losses from U-boat attacks to decline after May 1917?
1. The Blockade of German Submarine bases
2. Gigantic minefields laid by the U.S. Navy to prevent U-boats from gaining access to the Atlantic
3. The Air Warfare System
4. The Convoy System
World War I began in Europe in 1914 when what two countries declared war on each other?
1. France and Russia.
2. Japan and Germany.
3. Britain and France.
4. Austria and Serbia.
What are two of the weapons found to be effective in attacking the German U-boats in World War I?
1. Anti-submarine guns and hydrophones
2. Depth charges and submarine chasers
3. Submarine chasers and amphibious ships
4. Anti-U-boat guns and depth charges
The main objective of the German U-boats in World War I was to
1. attack British ships at night in the English Channel.
2. attack France.
3. attack merchant ships that were headed for Britain.
4. attack U. S. Navy ships.
In 1916, what more aggressive Admiral was given command of the German High Seas?
1. Vice Admiral Kurt Weil
2. Vice Admiral Reinhard Scheer
3. Vice Admiral Graf von Spee
4. Vice Admiral Heinrich Heine
During World War I, what was the main mission of the Channel Fleet?
1. Control the central agricultural areas of Europe
2. Prevent the escape of German ships into the Atlantic
3. Keep the English Channel safe for passage of British troops and supplies to France.
4. Guard the German coast from British attack and defeat units of the British fleet whenever possible
This admiral proposed a convoy system that greatly aided the British in getting merchant vessels past the German U-boats and into their ports. What was his name?
1. Admiral Porter, USN
2. Admiral Mahan, USN
3. Admiral Farragut, USN
4. Admiral Sims, USN
What was the main focus of the Taft administration from 1908 to 1913?
1. Trade recovery
2. Economic reform
3. Domestic reform
4. None of the above
What countries made up the Central Powers during World War I?
1. Turkey, Germany and Austria-Hungary
2. Japan, Russia and France
3. France, Britain and Russia
4. France, Germany and Austria-Hungary
To whom did the Russians surrender(late in 1917) during World War I?
1. Germany
2. Japan
3. Turkey
4. Austria-Hungary
What countries made up the Allied Powers during World War I?
1. Germany, Britain and France
2. France, Russia and Britain
3. Russia, Germany and Austria-Hungary
4. France, Germany and Austria-Hungary
What turned the tide of the war on land for the Allies in 1918?
1. The American shipbuilding industry built thousands of ships to carry supplies to Europe
2. The Russian economy depleted its resources
3. British naval blockade gradually caused widespread famine and shortages of war material
4. None of the above
In the 1920s the U.S. economy had
1. several periods of recession and labor unrest.
2. skyrocketed with new investments.
3. profitable times in the shipping industry.
4. taken a dip, but soon shot back up to the top.
What was the name of the U.S Navy’s first aircraft carrier?
1. USS Saratoga
2. USS Langley
3. USS Forrestal
4. USS Ronald Regan
President Harding felt that the Allies should
1. come to an agreement on arms limitations.
2. respect the U.S.'s knowledge of military affairs.
3. agree on territorial water trade.
4. stay together on all issues of the war.
In the 1920s and 1930s many politically troubled European countries were taken over by
1. dictators.
2. presidents.
3. coalitions.
4. mobs of demonstrators.
Adolph Hitler founded the Nazi Party in
1. Germany.
2. Italy.
3. France.
4. Spain.
The means devised to keep U.S. carrier task forces and amphibious forces in operation far from established bases was the
1. Naval Construction Battalion.
2. land-based air support system.
3. underway replenishment logistic support system.
4. carrier aircraft replenishment system.
In 1929 the U.S. stock market
1. rose to an all time high.
2. was created.
3. closed for an indefinite period of time.
4. collapsed.
The pre-World War II foreign policy of Britain and France in which they made territorial concessions to the Axis Powers in return for "promises of peace" was called the policy of
1. appeasement.
2. annexation.
3. demilitarization.
4. non-aggression.
In the years leading up to World War II the U.S. restricted the sale of oil and scrap metal to
1. Germany.
2. China.
3. Italy.
4. Japan.
In another treaty, the U.S. agreed NOT to fortify Pacific bases west of (the)
1. Solomon Islands.
2. California.
3. Japan.
4. Hawaii.
The Naval Disarmament Treaty called for limitations on the tonnage and armament of
1. arms sales to hostile countries.
2. battleships and cruisers.
3. weapons to be checked at strategic points at sea.
4. arms to be used only in time of war.
In 1939 Adolph Hitler's armies started World War II by invading
1. Italy.
2. Poland.
3. Czechoslovakia.
4. France.
The United States' military position during the pre-war years was
1. weak.
2. strong.
3. neutral.
4. strong in some parts of the world.
Benito Mussolini inspired Italian workers to build up the Italian military might, so that he could establish Rome as the center of
1. shipbuilding and trade.
2. Mediterranean power.
3. advanced military weaponry.
4. all European countries.
The militarists built up the Imperial Armed Forces in
1. China.
2. Japan.
3. Korea.
4. India.
The Disarmament Conference which resulted in the Washington Naval Treaty
1. caused the Japanese militarists to reduce their navy.
2. enabled the U.S. to reduce shipbuilding so as to save money during the Great Depression.
3. reduced the sizes of the ships in all major navies.
4. was intended to reduce fleet sizes of the three major naval powers to a mutually agreeable 5:5:3 ratio.
The Great Depression of 1929-1936
1. caused Congress to withhold funds for expansion of the U.S. Fleet.
2. resulted in a strong movement toward isolationism in the United States.
3. created hardship and unemployment over much of the world.
4. All of the above are correct.
In 1941 the U.S. became involved in an undeclared war in the Atlantic against
1. Japanese submarines.
2. German U-boats.
3. Russian freighters.
4. Italian Navy.
The fact that the United States did not join the League of Nations was an example of
1. isolationism.
2. democracy.
3. foreign policy.
4. pacifism.
After the Naval Disarmament Treaty was signed
1. it was soon forgotten.
2. all countries including the U.S. broke it.
3. all countries agreed to revoke it.
4. all countries except the U.S. broke it.
In 1921 a business recession affected
1. the U.S and all other major industrial nations.
2. only the United States.
3. portions of Russia and Poland.
4. the small nations of the world.
During the years between World Wars I and II, pacifists urged the country to
1. join the League of Nations.
2. cut military spending.
3. make peace with European nations.
4. Ratify the Versailles treaty.
When did Hitler invade Poland setting off World War I?
1. July 1941.
2. December 1941.
3. March 1939.
4. September 1939.
The United States declared war in 1941 on Japan after the Japanese attacked the U.S. Pacific Fleet at
1. Midway.
2. Guam.
3. Pearl Harbor.
4. Philippines.
Japan agreed to the Naval Disarmament Treaty when
1. the United States agreed not to fortify Pacific bases west of Hawaii.
2. the British agreed not to strengthen bases north of Australia or east of Singapore.
3. the territorial integrity of China was "guaranteed" against encroachments by foreign powers.
4. All of the above are correct because the Japanese felt they were being made a third-rate naval power by the ratio provisions of the treaty.
Operation Torch was the code word for the planned invasion of
1. Salerno, Italy.
2. French North Africa.
3. Anzio, Italy.
4. Sicily.
Who were the participants in the famous Casablanca Conference?
1. Churchill, Mussolini, and Eisenhower
2. Eisenhower and Roosevelt
3. Churchill and Roosevelt
4. Roosevelt and Hitler
The Vichy French forces of World War II were referred to as French forces aligned with
1. the Axis powers.
2. Allied forces.
3. the French underground.
4. the USSR.
Who was in charge of Germany's U-boat attack?
1. Admiral Donitz
2. Commodore Hertz
3. Admiral Gettes
4. Captain Stutgartt
What physical conditions were most important to the planners of the Normandy invasion?
1. Availability of German reinforcements
2. Layout and design of the landing areas
3. Weather, visibility and tides
4. Security of the plan of invasion
The rapid movement of Allied forces through France was possible mainly because of
1. the surrender of the Italians at Malta.
2. secure overland railroads.
3. complete Allied control of the air.
4. the introduction of radio-controlled glide bombs which caused severe damage to the Germans.
What operation was the first major attempt by the Allies to take home territory of an Axis nation?
1. Operation Avalanche
2. Operation Shingle
3. Operation Husky
4. Operation Overlord
Which of the following DID NOT help in defeating the "wolfpack" offensive?
1. Kamikazi striking force
2. Hunter-killer groups
3. Radar
4. High-frequency direction finding equipment
What historical event involved the creation of artificial harbors to protect ships that were offloading supplies from the fury of storms?
1. The attack on Pearl Harbor
2. Napoleon's invasion of Russia
3. Drake's defeat of Spanish Armada
4. The landings on Normandy
The Russians defeated the Germans and turned the tide on the Eastern European Front in the
1. invasion of Sicily.
2. Battle of Stalingrad.
3. Battle of the Bulge.
4. invasion of Casablanca.
What was the name of the group that could attack with depth bombs or call for surface attack support?
1. Kamikaze commandos group
2. Strike force
3. Search and destroy team
4. Hunter-killer group
The term "Axis" was used to refer to
1. the German Afrika Korps only.
2. the United States, England, and Russia.
3. the Vichy French only.
4. Germany, Japan, and Italy.
What was the single most dangerous weapon of defense used by the Germans along the Normandy beaches?
1. Destroyers
2. Mines
3. Strategic aircraft
4. U-boats
The U.S. Navy made its last direct contribution to the fight against Germany by
1. transporting troops across the Rhine River in West Germany.
2. capturing the Italian fleet at Malta.
3. transporting men and supplies to the beaches at Normandy.
4. capturing Mussolini.
Allied assistance to Soviet forces went through the port of
1. Murmansk.
2. Kiska.
3. Moresby.
4. Rabaul.
The Germans entered 1,175 U-boats into the war and lost
1. 987
2. 521
3. 692
4. 781
What was the significance of the battle at Anzio?
1. It allowed the Allies to occupy Rome and break the German stranglehold on the Italian peninsula.
2. It was the first Allied offensive operation in the European-North African theater.
3. It was the last German offensive in the European-North African theater.
4. It was the first major attempt to take home territory of an Axis nation.
Operation Overlord was the code word for the invasion of
1. Normandy.
2. Rome.
3. London.
4. Casablanca.
Who was responsible for leading the first invasion of southern France during daylight?
1. General McAuliffe
2. Admiral Hewitt
3. General Bradley
4. General Eisenhower
Supreme Commander of the Allied forces in Europe was
1. Field Marshal Erwin Rommel.
2. General Dwight Eisenhower.
3. Admiral Kent Hewitt.
4. British Prime Minister Winston Churchill.
The tactic of several U-boats converging on a merchant ship from all directions at one time was known as the
1. hunt to kill tactic.
2. wolf pack tactic.
3. "bear hug" operation.
4. circle and destroy procedure.
A boarding party from what U.S. ship captured and boarded a German U-boat?
1. USS King
2. USS Guadalcanal
3. USS Hornet
4. USS Yorktown
The primary objective of Operation Torch was to capture ports in
1. Stalingrad.
2. "Festung Europa."
3. French Morocco and Algeria.
4. Salerno.
The German West Wall was known as the
1. Festung Europa.
2. Iron Curtain.
3. Siegfried Line.
4. Gustav Line.
The German submarines had to retreat after severe losses because of the
1. increased number of surface escorts.
2. loss of manpower.
3. increased cost of repairs.
4. limit on fuel storage.
The principal objective of the landings at Normandy, beyond establishing the beachhead itself, was to
1. capture Cherbourg so supplies could be handled quickly.
2. regain territories lost in the Soviet winter campaign.
3. hold off the Axis until Allied reinforcements arrived.
4. detain the German Afrika Korps.
In what city did the German delegation sign the unconditional surrender document?
1. Bastogne, Belgium
2. Berlin, Germany
3. Reims, France
4. Anzio, Italy
A logistic support system was devised to
1. keep all U.S. naval forces sustained.
2. assist ships in distress.
3. create attack strategies.
4. determine fuel supplies at sea.
Where was the last German offensive of the war?
1. Italy
2. Belgium
3. France
4. Germany
On the eve of September 8, just before the invasion of Italy at Salerno, the Italian government
1. sunk three Allied warships.
2. evacuated the entire Italian fleet.
3. signed an armistice.
4. requested German reinforcements.
What was the name of the massive system of fortifications along the border between France and Germany?
1. The Rhineland Line
2. The Siegfried Line
3. The Maginot Line
4. The Paris Defenses
On the south, the Japanese perimeter included the
1. Dutch East Indies.
2. Aleutian Islands.
3. Kurile Islands.
4. British Gilbert Islands.
The Japanese targets were pre-designated to
1. strike all parts of the harbor at once.
2. show Japanese tactical superiority.
3. avoid confusion at the last minute.
4. hit only the off-duty patrol.
During the Japanese attack at Pearl Harbor one U.S. battleship exploded after a bomb set off her ammunition magazines. That ship was the
1. USS Arizona.
2. USS Repulse.
3. USS Arkansas.
4. USS Reuben James.
After the Japanese attack at Pearl Harbor, the United States
1. tried to negotiate with Japan.
2. assessed the damages and immediately began salvage operations.
3. voted for a new president.
4. immediately launched a counterattack against Japan.
Who led a force of all-volunteer pilots in a raid against Tokyo in April 1942?
1. Fletcher
2. Doolittle
3. Nimitz
4. Halsey
What island in the Solomon Islands became the objective of both sides following the battle at Midway?
1. Midway
2. Timor
3. Saipan
4. Guadalcanal
Following the victory in the Mariana Islands, the Fifth Fleet was redesignated the U.S.
1. First Fleet.
2. Sixth Fleet.
3. Second Fleet.
4. Third Fleet.
After the Pearl Harbor attack, the Japanese felt they had established
1. a war "name" for their country.
2. equality.
3. superiority.
4. air power.
The worse defeat in U.S. naval history occurred off
1. Port Moresby.
2. Guadalcanal.
3. Kiska.
4. Savo Island.
Regarding the invasion of the central Philippines, Admiral Halsey sent Admiral Nimitz an urgent message. What was it?
1. He recommended that the Palaus and Yap be bypassed and ground forces be turned over to MacArthur.
2. He requested additional troops to assist MacArthur with the invasion.
3. He explained the Japanese had initiated a new "defense in depth" strategy.
4. He advised Nimitz that he had lost most of his aircraft in air strikes against the central Philippines.
In 1942 the Dutch felt that the ABDA's (American, British, Dutch, and Australian) primary goal should be the defense of
1. Java.
2. Guam.
3. Australia.
4. Truk.
Admiral Yamamoto was Commander in Chief of Japan's
1. Strike Task Force.
2. Submarine Fleet.
3. Tactical Command.
4. Combined Fleet.
What American general was ordered out of the Philippines in March 1942 to take command of the defense of Australia?
1. Halsey
2. Nimitz
3. Fletcher
4. MacArthur
The turning point in the Pacific War in June 1942 was the battle of
1. the Java Sea.
2. Midway.
3. the Coral Sea.
4. the Philippines.
The first atomic bomb was dropped on what Japanese city?
1. Yokohamo
2. Hiroshima
3. Nagasaki
4. Tokyo
What locale did the Japanese develop into their major forward base for further expansion southwestward?
1. Truk
2. Rabaul
3. Wake
4. Midway
Of the following groups of countries which are ALL presently U.S. allies in NATO?
1. The Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, and Great Britain
2. Turkey, Greece, Ukraine, and Germany
3. Hungary, Iceland, Italy, and Luxembourg
4. Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, and Denmark
What new threat appeared for the first time in the Pacific War at Leyte Gulf?
1. Banzai charges
2. Radio-controlled torpedoes
3. Kamikazes
4. Smoke bombs
The Japanese headquarters in the Marshall Islands were at
1. Saipan.
2. Tarawa.
3. Kwajalein.
4. Truk.
The fight against Japan became known as the
1. Pacific War.
2. Atlantic-Pacific Battle.
3. Oriental Conflict.
4. Kamikaze Conflict.
After the Battle of the Phillipine Sea, the Fast Carrier Task Force became
1. Task Force 38.
2. Task Force 54.
3. Task Force 68.
4. Task Force 22.
The passage between the major Solomon Islands and Rabaul was nicknamed
1. the Marianas Turkey Shoot.
2. the Ironbottom Sound.
3. the Tokyo Express.
4. the Slot.
One advantage the Japanese had at the Battle of the Coral Sea in May 1942 was
1. they had broken the U.S. code.
2. the element of surprise.
3. they saw the American carrier force first.
4. their pilots had more combat experience.
What Pacific War island campaign cost the U.S. Marines the highest combat casualty rate (40 percent) of any amphibious assault in American history?
1. Guadalcanal
2. Peleliu
3. Saipan
4. Leyte
What island in the Dutch East Indies was the primary objective of the Japanese?
1. Java
2. Andaman
3. Truk
4. Midway
The primary cause of Japan's ultimate defeat at sea was
1. the loss of her most experienced pilots.
2. the death of Yamamoto.
3. lack of experience in naval combat.
4. reinforcement of the ABDA defense command.
The Japanese code words which meant that surprise attack had been achieved at Pearl Harbor were
1. Nagumo! Tiaka!
2. Climb Mount Niitaka!
3. May day! May day!
4. Tora...Tora...Tora.
Headquarters for the ABDA Defense Command were in
1. Timor.
2. Midway.
3. Java.
4. Darwin.
What locale in the Carolines did Japan make into her "Pearl Harbor"?
1. Midway
2. Rabaul
3. Wake
4. Truk
To whom did the Japanese make their initial “peace feelers?? to end the Pacific War?
1. France
2. Great Britain
3. United States
4. Soviet Union
One of the easiest Allied conquests of the war was
1. Iwo Jima.
2. Peleliu.
3. Morotai.
4. Okinawa.
Who signed the surrender document acceptance for the United States?
1. General MacArthur
2. Admiral Nimitz
3. General Eisenhower
4. President Truman
What Pacific island, held by the Japanese, allowed the home island defenses to be alerted when American bombers were headed for Japan?
1. Okinawa
2. Iwo Jima
3. Peleliu
4. Leyte
When the Japanese attacked, most of the U.S sailors were preparing for
1. an inspection.
2. an attack drill.
3. sea duty.
4. liberty.
What was the outcome of the Battles for Leyte Gulf?
1. The United States Navy no longer existed as an effective fighting force.
2. The Imperial Japanese Navy no longer existed as an effective fighting force.
3. Both navies met their objectives but neither was victorious.
4. The United States Navy lost the battle, but not the war.
The end of the fighting for the Japanese was at
1. Okinawa.
2. Leyte Gulf.
3. Iwo Jima.
4. Formosa.
When General MacArthur waded ashore at Leyte, he called for the Filipino people to rise and strike the Japanese at every opportunity. What means of communication did he use?
1. It was spread person-to-person by the Filipino people.
2. He made a radio broadcast.
3. He made a television appearance.
4. B-29s dropped handbills on the islands.
In the Indian Ocean, the Japanese perimeter was anchored by
1. Rabaul on New Britain.
2. Darwin, Australia.
3. Rangoon, Burma.
4. Truk in the Carolines.
Japanese planes missed the tank farm where fuel oil had been stored. How much fuel oil was stored in the tank farm when the attack occurred?
1. 6 3/4 million barrels
2. 4 1/2 million barrels
3. 1/2 million barrels
4. 1 1/2 million barrels
During World War II little effort went into improving or training in the Japanese
1. air tactical command.
2. surface fleet.
3. submarine fleet.
4. land forces.
During the battles for Guadalcanal and New Guinea in late 1942, what was the major Japanese base in the Southwest Pacific?
1. Guam
2. Makin
3. Tarawa
4. Rabaul
The Japanese objective in Leyte Gulf was to
1. put as much distance as possible between the Allied forces and the home island of Japan.
2. destroy the Amphibious Task Force.
3. get the Americans in the stem of a "T" crossed by Japanese cruisers and battleships.
4. capture General Douglas MacArthur.
The key to America's offense in the Pacific was
1. well-trained pilots.
2. more strategic weapons.
3. U.S. intelligence.
4. quick reinforcements from the mainland.
General MacArthur directed the occupation of Japan from his head quarters in
1. Yokohamo.
2. Hiroshima.
3. Tokyo.
4. Nagasaki.
The surrender document was signed aboard what United States ship?
1. USS Pensacola
2. USS New Jersey
3. USS Lexington
4. USS Missouri
The first great combat between carrier forces with neither fleet ever coming into sight of the other was the battle of
1. the Java Sea.
2. Midway.
3. the Philippines.
4. the Coral Sea.
What specially trained force developed Henderson Field on Guadalcanal?
1. Trained technicians and laborers
2. Marine and army invasion troops
3. Task Force 58
4. Seabees
The Japanese were defeated in the Battle of the Philippine Sea in June 1944. What was the principal effect of this defeat on the Japanese?
1. The camaraderie between their men decreased.
2. They lost their most capable commander.
3. Their remaining carrier air capability was destroyed.
4. Their naval forces were eliminated.
What physical characteristic made submarines used in the Pacific different from the ones used in the Atlantic?
1. Size
2. Radar equipment
3. Shape
4. Color
The Third Fleet conducted heavy attacks on Formosa and Okinawa to
1. destroy potential land-based air support for the Japanese forces in the Philippines.
2. neutralize the supporting naval forces preparing for the invasion of Iwo Jima.
3. ensure control of Formosa during the invasion of the Palaus Islands.
4. divide the Japanese fleet and cut off their supply line from the Indies.
The name of the U.S. Commander in Chief, Pacific Fleet, was
1. Admiral Albert Fisher.
2. Admiral Robert Mitscher.
3. Admiral Chester Nimitz.
4. Admiral James Thompson.
What two aircraft carriers were out at sea during the Pearl Harbor attack?
1. The USS Kitty Hawk and the Nimitz
2. The USS Coral Gables and the Arizona
3. The USS Lexington and the Enterprise
4. The USS Kennedy and the Roosevelt
The U.S. was going to have to put forth an effort in the Atlantic throughout World War II to keep the
1. Germans U-boats from joining forces with Japanese submarines.
2. lines of communication open between Berlin and Pearl Harbor.
3. sealanes open to Britain.
4. Japanese from establishing bases on Bermuda.
What name was given to the Japanese operations that attempted to reinforce Guadalcanal?
1. Kamikaze
2. Java
3. Truk
4. Tokyo Express
The loss of the U.S. battleships caused U.S. Pacific naval policy to be
1. left alone.
2. discontinued.
3. reassessed.
4. slightly improved.
During World War II the Japanese occupied American territory in the
1. Aleutian Islands.
2. Caroline Islands.
3. Solomon Islands.
4. Mariana Islands.
What country did not declare war on Japan until after the first atomic bomb was dropped?
1. China
2. USSR
3. Korea
4. Canada
The ABDA Defense Command was formed by the United States (America), the British, Dutch, and
1. Andaman Islands.
2. Aleutian Islands.
3. Austria.
4. Australia.
Who gave the final order to drop atomic bombs on two Japanese cities?
1. General MacArthur
2. President Truman
3. Admiral Halsey
4. Stalin
The ships out to sea during the attack at Pearl Harbor were
1. carriers.
2. destroyers.
3. escort ships.
4. ammunition ships.
One goal for the Pacific war following the Casablanca Conference of January 1943 was to isolate
1. Rabaul.
2. Saipan.
3. Guam.
4. Port Moresby.
The Dutch admiral who commanded the ABDA naval force was
1. Karel Doorman.
2. Jan Vermeer.
3. Theo Van Gogh.
4. Pym Fortuyn.
What is the famous mountain located on Iwo Jima?
1. Mount Suribachi
2. Mount Yahagi
3. Mount Matsuyama
4. Mount Nagaoka
The Inchon landing was fraught with danger because
1. the North Koreans were almost certain to be there in great force.
2. the Navy was unable to assist with naval gunfire support.
3. Communist air forces were in a position to interdict the invasion force when it was still vulnerable on the beach.
4. the tidal range made the grounded amphibious ships vulnerable to possible enemy capture.
In what month and year was the accord signed ending the fighting in Vietnam?
1. 2/1974
2. 8/1974
3. 1/1973
4. 4/1974
Which of the following is a former Japanese possession?
1. Ceylon
2. Pakistan
3. Korea
4. Malaya
What is another name for the European Recovery Program?
1. National Security Act
2. Marshall Plan
3. NATO
4. Truman Doctrine
The principal far-reaching result of the Cuban missile quarantine in 1962 was the
1. withdrawal of Soviet missiles from Cuba.
2. new Soviet determination to develop a navy sufficient to support their national objectives wherever and whenever required.
3. demonstration of the ability of the Navy to protect our national security.
4. prevention of further build-up of Soviet IRBMs in Cuba.
What is the name of the first U. S. nuclear powered submarine, commissioned in 1955?
1. USS Aegis
2. Nautilus
3. USS Trident
4. USS Polaris
In late January 1951, Ridgeway began a methodical drive toward the Han River, which culminated in the recapture of
1. Pyongyang.
2. Yalu.
3. Wonson.
4. Seoul.
Who was elected President in November 1952?
1. Dwight Eisenhower
2. Douglas MacArthur
3. Turner Joy
4. Harry Truman
North Vietnam captured South Vietnam in
1. February 1973.
2. Douglas MacArthur
3. Turner Joy
4. Harry Truman
Who announced a unilateral bombing halt of North Vietnam, and invited Hanoi to the peace talks?
1. Lyndon Johnson
2. John Kennedy
3. Dean Rusk
4. Elmo Zumwalt
The only options open to the United states to stop expansion of Soviet communism in the first few years after World War II were to
1. stop demobilization or call on the United Nations.
2. go to war with conventional weapons or withdraw economic assistance.
3. withhold Marshall Plan assistance or call upon the NATO alliance.
4. make a diplomatic protest or use the atomic bomb.
In June 1947, Secretary of State George Marshall announced Truman's plan for reconstruction of European countries through their own efforts, supported by American economic aid. This plan, formally named the European Recovery Program, became known as the
1. Truman Economic Aid Program.
2. Marshall Plan.
3. State Department Act.
4. Overseas Recovery Plan.
Which of the following served as Secretary of State during the Kennedy administration?
1. George Anderson
2. Robert McNamara
3. Robert Kennedy
4. Dean Rusk
The principal political effect of U.S. naval amphibious operations in Lebanon in 1958 was
1. the evacuation of the entire population from the country for resettlement in controlled friendly areas.
2. the Soviet decision to start building up their Navy since they couldn't effectively oppose those naval operations.
3. the Soviet back-down on their promises to President Nasser of Egypt to support coup d'etat attempts in his favor in the Middle East.
4. bad press as the result of public opinion against American intervention.
Who took command of the Eighth Army after the death of General Walton Walker?
1. Edward Almond
2. Edward Ewen
3. Matthew Ridgeway
4. James Doyle
Who was President of the United States when the Cuban missile crisis occurred in 1962?
1. Gerald Ford
2. Dwight Eisenhower
3. Richard Nixon
4. John Kennedy
Of the following, which was probably the most significant, contributing factor to the invasion, which started the Korean War?
1. Soviet training of a strong North Korean Army.
2. Slowness of American foreign policy to authorize adequate and timely training of a South Korean Army.
3. Irresponsible U.S. State Department comments indicating that Korea was not important to American strategic defense.
4. Establishment of a puppet Communist military dictatorship in North Korea.
The United States, Canada, and its West European allies agreed in 1949 to create the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO). In 1955 which country was permitted to join NATO?
1. Turkey
2. Portugal
3. The Federal Republic of Germany
4. Greece
The Soviet Union was able to subjugate much of Eastern Europe in 1946 because the
1. U.S. Army was unable to contest them due to its weakness.
2. American public did not have the will to go to war or use the atomic bomb to stop them.
3. U.S. Navy was out of range to oppose Soviet actions in that area.
4. All of the above statements are correct.
President Truman dismissed General MacArthur from his leadership role in the Korean War because
1. MacArthur had been unsuccessful in defeating the North Korean Army in South Korea.
2. MacArthur had disobeyed a presidential order to clear all public statements concerning the conduct of the war with the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
3. he believed Soviet nuclear involvement would start World War III if Chinese staging areas in Manchuria were bombed as advocated by MacArthur.
4. he disagreed with MacArthur over the conduct of the Korean truce talks.
The original members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) were the West European allies, the United States and
1. Turkey.
2. Greece.
3. Spain.
4. Canada
Of the following, the National Security Council consists of the President, Vice-President, Secretary of State, and
1. Secretary of Defense.
2. Attorney General.
3. White House Chief of Staff.
4. UN Ambassador.
Which of the following statements concerning the Korean War is NOT true?
1. Korea War had to have an adequate military force in readiness at all times, otherwise the Communist would take advantage of any national weakness.
2. The Korean War demonstrated that sea power still was essential to the defense of the nation.
3. The Korean War revealed that the will of the U.S. Government and people to halt determined Communist aggression had retained its credibility.
4. The Korean War showed that without clearly developed government policy, military operations would not end satisfactorily.
The purpose of the Marshall Plan was to
1. bring pressure in the United Nations to cause the Soviets to get out of northern Iran.
2. begin the Cold War by confrontation with the Soviet Union and its satellites.
3. assist in the economic reconstruction of Western Europe.
4. deploy the Sixth Fleet to the Mediterranean on a permanent basis.
Who consolidated the Pusan Perimeter in September 1950, and made it nearly impregnable?
1. Walker
2. MacArthur
3. Ridgeway
4. Almond
In what location did the Vietnam peace talks take place?
1. Stockholm, Sweden
2. Geneva, Switzerland
3. Naples, Italy
4. Paris, France
Of the following, who became the first Secretary of Defense in 1947?
1. Douglas MacArthur
2. Chester Nimitz
3. George Marshall
4. James Forrestal
Along with the United Nations, which of the following helped establish the Republic of Korea (ROK)?
1. United States
2. Canada
3. China
4. Great Britain
Which of the following momentous historical events in Asia resulted in the most significant Communist advance in the post-war years?
1. The independence of India and Pakistan from Britain.
2. The division of Indo-China into North and South Vietnam.
3. The defeat of the Nationalist Government on the mainland of China.
4. The Korean War.
Who was in charge of naval forces in Korea?
1. Almond
2. Ridgeway
3. Clausewitz
4. Joy
Who originated the term "Iron Curtain?"
1. Winston Churchill
2. Joseph Stalin
3. Harry S. Truman
4. George Marshall
After the U.S. Marines fought their way out of encirclement at the Chosin Reservoir, the Navy successfully evacuated them and their equipment
1. from the Yalu River staging area to positions near Wonsan where they regained the allied offensive.
2. from Hungnam in a remarkable "amphibious operation in reverse."
3. to Pusan where they supported defenses on the perimeter.
4. to Seoul where they successfully stopped the Chinese advance on the South Korean capital.
In what month and year did President Nixon resign?
1. 2/1/1973
2. 4/1/1973
3. 8/1/1974
4. 1/1/1972
The Korean War truce talks took place at
1. Wonsan.
2. Panmunjon.
3. Seoul.
4. All of the above.
Within a month of the invasion, the South Korea and American forces were making a last ditch defense in a small corner of the Korean peninsula called the
1. Seoul Sanctuary.
2. Yalu River Sanctuary.
3. Korean Straits.
4. Pusan Perimeter.
What country invaded the Falklands in 1982?
1. Brazil
2. Nicaragua
3. Argentina
4. Chile
Who was the Soviet Premier during the Cuban missile quarantine in 1962?
1. Gobachev
2. Gorshkov
3. Stalin
4. Khrushchev
The post-war military alliances which were formed by the Western democracies on the one hand, and the Soviet-controlled states on the other, were, respectively, the
1. European Recovery Program and Council for Mutual Economic Assistance.
2. North Atlantic Treaty Organization and the Warsaw Pact.
3. Marshall Plan and Warsaw Pact.
4. Eastern Europe Mutual Assistance Treaty and North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
Which of the following statements concerning "unification" of the U.S. military services is correct?
1. A single chief of staff would create flexibility of response in any further war.
2. Economy is not likely to be enhanced since waste and duplication in military supply system cannot usually be reduced.
3. There is an advantage to unified command in combat areas due to overall battle coordination requirements.
4. One weapons system is sufficient to provide all aspects of national defense.
Who was CNO during the 1962 Cuban missile quarantine?
1. Admiral Hyman G. Rickover
2. Admiral George Anderson
3. Admiral Michael W. West
4. Admiral Chester W. Nimitz
The drastic reduction in size of the U. S. Armed Forces after World War II was officially termed the post war
1. disintegration.
2. demobilization.
3. deterioration.
4. decommissioning.
Who relieved MacArthur of his Far East duties?
1. Arthur Struble
2. Walton Walker
3. Dwight Eisenhower
4. Matthew Ridgeway
When Admiral Burke, the CNO at the time, committed the Sixth Fleet in Lebanon, which fleet was sent to the Pacific to reinforce the Seventh Fleet?
1. Fourth Fleet
2. Third Fleet
3. First Fleet
4. Second Fleet
Who was President of the United States during the Red Chinese invasion of one of the Nationalist held Tachen Islands in 1955?
1. President Eisenhower
2. President Truman
3. President Kennedy
4. President Johnson
Which of the following authorized General MacArthur to proceed north of the 38th parallel in the fall of 1950 to destroy the North Korean forces?
1. President Eisenhower
2. The State Department
3. United Nations
4. Western European Allies
What new technological development made possible the fleet ballistic missile submarine, the first one of which was launched in 1959?
1. New magnesium alloy capable of sustaining pressures at great depths
2. The first operational nuclear reactor
3. The Polaris missile
4. The Navy's nuclear power training program
Which U.S. President helped Captain Rickover in the initial development of the world's first nuclear-powered submarine?
1. President Eisenhower
2. President Kennedy
3. President Truman
4. President Carter
What Far Eastern country was temporarily divided following World War II in accordance with the Potsdam Conference?
1. Pakistan
2. India
3. Ceylon
4. Korea
After constant warfare, Communism triumphed in Indo-China in the mid-1970s after nearly
1. ten years.
2. forty years.
3. twenty years.
4. thirty years.
What is the name of the destroyer allegedly attacked by NVN patrol boats in August 1964 that precipitated open involvement of the United States in the Vietnam War?
1. USS Ticonderoga
2. USS Maddox
3. USS Vincennes
4. USS Constellation
What military event in 1958 demonstrated that the Sixth Fleet was a force-in-being capable of decisive action?
1. Preparation for the attack on Quemoy
2. Defense of Taiwan
3. Lebanese operation
4. Communist insurgency in Indonesia
The National Security Act of 1947 created the
1. National Security Council.
2. Joint Chiefs of Staff.
3. Central Intelligence Agency.
4. All of the above are correct.
Almost total change in the complexion of the Korean War occurred on 25 November 1950 when
1. Allied forces broke the Communist lines around Pusan.
2. Pyongyang fell to the allies.
3. the Chinese Communists launched their first major offensive against the allies.
4. the Wonsan operation failed to achieve its objective.
In 1983, who attempted to take over the island nation of Grenada?
1. Cuban-backed forces
2. Nicaraguan-based forces
3. Costa Rican-backed forces
4. Panamanian-backed forces
Which armed service was the most vocal in their criticism of other services during debates on unification of the services following World War II?
1. U.S. Navy
2. Department of Defense
3. Marine Corps
4. Army Air Corps
Who undertook to evacuate the inhabitants from the Tachen Islands to Taiwan?
1. The Red Chinese
2. The United Nations Allies
3. The Soviets
4. The U.S. Navy
Of the following, who felt that no one weapon system would be adequate to provide for all aspects of national defense?
1. George Marshall
2. James Forrestal
3. Chester Nimitz
4. Winston Churchill
In operating off "Yankee Station" in the Tonkin Gulf continuously for five years, the Seventh Fleet had at times on station there as many as
1. six carriers.
2. four carriers.
3. five carriers.
4. seven carriers.
How did the United States identify the Soviet's ICBM launching pads under construction in Cuba in 1962?
1. From photographs from high-flying U-2 reconnaissance aircraft.
2. From an intelligence agent working for the CIA in Cuba.
3. A Russian spy sold important information to the FBI on the launching pads.
4. All of the above statements are correct.
The man who became the first President of Russia after the fall of the Soviet Union was?
1. Joseph Stalin
2. Boris Yeltsin
3. Nikita Khrushchev
4. Mikhail Gorbachev
Who made changes in the Navy such as liberal hair styles, beards, and civilian clothes on liberty, through a series of directives in the early 1970s?
1. James Forrestal
2. Robert McNamara
3. Elmo Zumwalt
4. Richard Nixon
Which of the following is a member of the President's Cabinet?
1. Secretary of the Navy
2. Chairman of the Joints Chiefs of Staff
3. Secretary of Defense
4. Secretary of the Air Force
What country granted independence to India, Pakistan, and Ceylon?
1. France
2. Soviet Union
3. United States
4. Great Britain
The United States policy change in 1947 which prevented Soviet expansion into Greece and Turkey is known as the
1. Marshall Plan.
2. European Recovery Program.
3. Truman Doctrine.
4. National Security Act.
The man given major credit for spearheading the Navy into the era of nuclear powered submarines and ships is Admiral
1. Chester W. Nimitz, U.S.N.
2. Hyman G. Rickover, U.S.N.
3. Arleigh Burke, U.S.N.
4. Alfred T. Mahan, U.S.N.
Who made the statement during the Korean War, "There is no substitute for victory?"
1. Douglas MacArthur
2. Harry Truman
3. Matthew Ridgeway
4. Joseph Martin
When North Korea invaded South Korea,
1. the Security Council of the United Nations condemned the invasion.
2. the Joint Chiefs named General MacArthur Commander-in-Chief of U.S Forces in the Far East.
3. President Truman ordered the Joint Chiefs of Staff to take military action to aid South Korea.
4. All of the above statements are correct.
What country withdrew from military participation in NATO in 1966, though it still participates in political affairs?
1. Great Britain
2. France
3. Turkey
4. Greece
Which of the following opposed the idea of a single Chief of Staff over all of the armed forces?
1. Chester Nimitz
2. James Forrestal
3. Douglas MacArthur
4. George Marshall
The term "Iron Curtain" was coined by Winston Churchill to
1. illustrate the opposition between the East and West in the Cold War.
2. proclaim the establishment of an Allied defense line in Europe against further Soviet military advances.
3. describe the boundary erected by the Soviets between the Western democracies and Communist satellites on the European continent.
4. None of the above are correct. The Soviets established the Iron Curtain to prevent Allied military advances into Eastern Europe after World War II.
In what year was the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) formed?
1. 1969
2. 1949
3. 1959
4. 1939
What President authorized the bombing of Hanoi, and the mining of Haiphong Harbor?
1. Lyndon Johnson
2. Richard Nixon
3. Dwight Eisenhower
4. John Kennedy
What was the official name give to the Communist South Vietnamese insurgents?
1. Communist Rebels
2. National Liberation Front
3. Communist Nationalists
4. Vietcong
The complacency of the American public following victory in World War II can be attributed to
1. a belief that the United Nations could solve whatever international problems might arise.
2. All of the statements are correct.
3. the knowledge that the United States had a monopoly on the atomic bomb.
4. a widespread desire by knowledgeable leaders to return to isolationism in foreign policy.
Which of the following offered military aid and economic assistance in the amount of $200 million annually to South Vietnam in the 1950's?
1. McGeorge Bundy
2. Robert McNamara
3. Harry S. Truman
4. Dwight Eisenhower
Operation Chromite, probably the most daring amphibious assault ever planned, was conducted at
1. Hungnam, to escape from North Korean and Chinese encirclement.
2. Pusan, to break out of the North Korean encirclement.
3. Inchon, to cut off North Korean forces in the south.
4. Wonsan, to destroy North Korean forces fleeing northward.
What ship was hit in 1987 by two Exocet missiles launched by an Iraqi aircraft, resulting in the loss of 37 members of the crew?
1. USS C. Turner Joy
2. USS Missouri
3. USS Stark
4. USS Samuel B. Roberts
During the Cuban missile crisis, who branded the American charges as lies, and warned against any act of "piracy?"
1. Nikita Khrushchev
2. Fidel Castro
3. Gamal Nasser
4. Joseph Stalin
During which of the following conflicts was the Argentine cruiser General Belgrano sunk by a British submarine?
1. Iran-Iraq War
2. Falklands War
3. Vietnam War
4. Grenada Invasion
In reference to the Cuban missile crisis, who was reported to have said, "We're eyeball to eyeball, and I think the other fellow just blinked?"
1. John Kennedy
2. Arleigh Burke
3. George Anderson
4. Dean Rusk
In the 1990,s all Branches of the armed services have been called on to fight what problem?
1. City Riots
2. Drug Trafficking
3. Illegal Aliens
4. Forest Fires
Where was the Treaty signed that ended the war in Bosnia-Hezegovina?
1. London, England
2. Paris, France
3. New York City, New York
4. Dayton, Ohio
In 1998 apprehension arose over nuclear weapons tests conducted by India and
1. China.
2. Afghanistan.
3. Russia.
4. Pakistan.
What United Nations Operation intended to bring food supplies and restore some order to Somalia?
1. Operation Enduring Freedom
2. Operation Restore Hope
3. Operation Desert Storm
4. Operation Deliberate Force
In 1995 Navy and Marine Corps planes from the carrier Theodore Roosevelt conducted air strikes against Serb military positions as part of
1. Task Force Ranger.
2. Operation Enduring Freedom.
3. Operation Desert Storm.
4. Operation Deliberate Force.
In 1996 the U.S. Marines were called on to evacuate U.S. nationals from
1. Liberia and The Republic of Bangui.
2. Nigeria and Egypt.
3. Uganda and The Congo.
4. South Africa and Chad.
In August 1998, U.S. Embassies in what two African countries were destroyed by terrorist car bombs?
1. Kenya and Tanzania
2. South Africa and Uganda
3. Liberia and The Congo
4. Egypt and Chad
The threat of domestic terrorism in the U.S. was underscored in the 1990s by
1. the explosion of TWA Flight 800 in 1996.
2. the Olympic bombing in 1996.
3. the Oklahoma city federal building bombing in 1995.
4. Both B and C are correct.
In the 1990's the main reason for the major draw down and consolidation of the U.S. Armed Forces was
1. alleged sexual misconduct.
2. More important domestic issues.
3. end of the Cold War threat.
4. The Tailhook scandal.
By the year 2000 The number of Navy ships and personal had fallen to around
1. 700 ships and 600,000 people.
2. 500 ships and 500,000 people.
3. 300 ships and 370,000 people.
4. 800 ships and 700,000 people.
In the 1990s civil insurrections broke out in several African and Central European nations because of
1. cessation of aid from the former Soviet Union.
2. ethnic conflict.
3. poor economic conditions.
4. all of the above.
What U.S. Destroyer had a large hole blown in her Port Side while in port at Yemen?
1. USS Saratoga
2. USS Cole
3. USS Hornet
4. USS Wake Island
The commander of allied ground force in Operation Desert Storm was
1. General Colin Powell.
2. General Norman Schwarzkopf.
3. Admiral Frank Kelso.
4. Admiral Jeremy Boorda.
Operations Desert Shield/Desert Storm was conducted in 1990/1991 in response to Iraqi President Saddam Hussein's invasion of
1. Saudi Arabia.
2. Israel.
3. Kuwait.
4. Syria.
What Arms Treaty signed in January 1993 between the U.S. and Russia was called, "the broadest disarmament pact in history."
1. NATO
2. SALT II
3. START II
4. START I
What areas did the hijacked planes of September 11 impact?
1. The Pentagon, Washington D.C.
2. Western Pennsylvania
3. The World Trade Center, New York City
4. All of the above
In 1991 Civil War Broke out in which Baltic Country?
1. Greece
2. Yugoslavia
3. Turkey
4. Italy
What factors lead to anarchy and famine in the African state of Somalia?
1. cessation of aid from the Soviet Union
2. rebel Armies forced President Siad Barre to flee
3. clan warfare
4. All of the Above
Who is considered to be the mastermind of the September 11th attacks?
1. Osama Bin Laden and his al-Qaida network
2. Pakistan
3. Saudi Arabia
4. North Korea
In October 1992 the UN established a no-fly zone, and safe areas around several cities in
1. Serbia.
2. Bosnia-Herzegovina.
3. Croatia.
4. Spain.
The deepest spot in the North Atlantic basin is the
1. Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
2. South Sandwich Trench.
3. Puerto Rico Trench.
4. Greenland-Iceland Gap.
The strategic entrance to the Mediterranean Sea from the Atlantic Ocean is through the
1. Strait of Gibraltar.
2. Turkish Straits.
3. Danish Straits.
4. Strait of Sicily.
What is the name of the cape at the southern most tip of Africa?
1. Cape Hatteras
2. Cape of South Africa
3. Cape of Bosporus
4. Cape Good Hope
The strategic Russian warm-water port on the Barents Sea is located at
1. Istanbul.
2. Narvik.
3. Polinsk.
4. Murmansk.
Where is the busiest and largest Atlantic port in Western Europe located?
1. London, England
2. Cannes, France
3. Naples, Italy
4. Antwerp, Belgium
In which body of water are most of the shrimp caught that are consumed in the United States?
1. North Atlantic
2. Gulf of Mexico
3. Caribbean Sea
4. Gulf of Alaska
The Lesser Antilles are the small islands bordering the eastern portion of which sea?
1. Caribbean Sea
2. Caspian Sea
3. North Sea
4. Red Sea
In what country are the oil fields of Lake Maricaibo located?
1. Brazil
2. Argentina
3. Venezuela
4. Columbia
What is the most important strategic waterway in the Caribbean Sea?
1. Lake Maricaibo
2. Pontchartrain Strait
3. Panama Canal
4. St. Lawrence Canal
What is the smallest of all the major oceans?
1. North Atlantic
2. South Atlantic
3. Antarctic
4. Arctic
What is the most profitable natural resource in the Mediterranean Sea?
1. Fish
2. Oil
3. Sulfur
4. Bauxite
What was the first American nuclear submarine (In 1958) to reach the North Pole?
1. The USS Cole
2. The USS Kennedy
3. The USS Nautilus
4. The USS Eisenhower
The most active volcanic basin on earth is located in what body of water?
1. Caribbean Sea
2. North Sea
3. Mediterranean Sea
4. Black Sea
The Ukrainians have a fleet of naval warships based at Sevastopol on the
1. Black Sea.
2. North Sea.
3. Red Sea.
4. Caribbean Sea.
Where is the largest (in the world) single offshore mining operation located?
1. The Atlantic Ocean
2. The Gulf of Omen
3. The Gulf of Mexico
4. The Bahamas
The most extensive mining operations along the Atlantic seaboard of the United States are for
1. oil.
2. sands and gravels.
3. aragonite and shells.
4. All of the above answers are correct.
The most important mining operations in the Atlantic Ocean's seas and gulfs are for
1. oil.
2. manganese.
3. sulfur.
4. phosphates.
What Ocean has some of the most heavily fished areas in the world?
1. The Caribbean
2. The Gulf of Mexico
3. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.
4. The Atlantic
Caught along the New England, Caribbean, and South African coasts are high-value
1. sardines and anchovies.
2. shrimp.
3. codfish.
4. lobsters.
Major fisheries along the northeast coast of the United States and Canada yield abundant catches of
1. herring and sardines.
2. cod, haddock, and ocean perch.
3. shrimp and crabs.
4. tuna.
The world's busiest shipping lanes exist between
1. the United States and Western Europe.
2. the United States and South America.
3. Western Europe and South America.
4. United States and Canada.
From the U. S. military standpoint, the most important sea lanes are those between the United States,
1. Western Europe, and the Middle East.
2. the Western Pacific, and Japan.
3. the Eastern Atlantic, and the Caribbean.
4. Japan, and the Middle East.
The main U. S. naval bases on the East Coast of the United States are
1. Newport, New London, Norfolk, King Bay Georgia and Mayport.
2. Norfolk, Baltimore, Philadelphia, and New York.
3. New London, Philadelphia, and King's Bay.
4. New Orleans, Norfolk, New York, and Gulfport.
Major U. S. naval shipyards on the East Coast are
1. Bath, Maine; Quincy, Massachusetts; and Baltimore, Maryland.
2. New Orleans, Boston, New York, and Baltimore.
3. Portsmouth Virginia.
4. Pascagoula, Mississippi; Philadelphia, PA; and Houston, Texas.
The main eastern and Gulf Coast commercial shipyards that handle major shipbuilding programs for the U. S. Navy are located at
1. Portsmouth, Virginia; Charleston, South Carolina; and Boston, Massachusetts.
2. New York, Baltimore, and Philadelphia.
3. Quincy, Massachusetts; Newport, Rhode Island; and Norfolk, Virginia.
4. Bath, Maine; Newport News, Virginia; and Quincy, Massachusetts.
Entrance and departure from the Baltic Sea is through the
1. Turkish Straits.
2. Danish Straits.
3. Strait of Gibraltar.
4. English Channel.
Principal Russian naval fleets in Europe are the
1. Northern, Baltic Fleets.
2. Mediterranean, Barents, and North Sea Fleets.
3. White, Black, and Mediterranean Sea Fleets.
4. Barents, Baltic, and Caspian Sea Fleets.
A strategic area from the standpoint of defending Allied shipping in the North Atlantic is known as the
1. Norwegian Sea.
2. White Sea-Kola Peninsula.
3. English Channel.
4. Greenland-Iceland-United Kingdom Gap.
Offshore drilling on the Gulf Coast of the United States is off the shores of
1. Texas and Louisiana.
2. Mississippi and Alabama.
3. Louisiana and Mississippi.
4. Florida and Alabama.
The most important commercial fishing operations in the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico are for
1. shrimp, menhaden, and langusta.
2. halibut, shrimp, and tuna.
3. blue crabs and cod.
4. tuna and cod.
One of the most important fleet training bases in the Caribbean Sea area for the U. S. Navy is located at
1. Cristobal, Canal Zone.
2. Gitmo Naval Base.
3. Guatanamo Bay, Cuba.
4. St. Thomas, U. S. Virgin Islands.
In order for units of the Ukrainian fleet to enter the Atlantic, they must transmit the
1. Bosporus, Sea of Marmara, and Dardanelles in Turkey.
2. Turkish Straits and Strait of Gibraltar.
3. Suez Canal.
4. Skagerrak and Kattegat.
The ecological balance of the Mediterranean Sea is in great danger of being destroyed because of
1. excessive evaporation of water.
2. the building of the Aswan Dam in Egypt.
3. over-fishing.
4. large-scale industrial and domestic pollution.
The primary Allied naval task in any conflict with the Russian States would be to
1. sink Russian naval ships.
2. blockade Russian submarines.
3. blockade the North Atlantic.
4. strike Russian naval bases.
A major political and potential military problem for the United States in the Caribbean area for the past twenty-five years has been
1. the Cuban refugees.
2. the Haitian refugees.
3. revolutionaries in Puerto Rico.
4. Communist Cuba.
The most important strategic spot in the Caribbean Sea is
1. the Panama Canal.
2. Cuba.
3. Guatanamo Bay.
4. Colombia.
What is the fishing area located off the coast of Newfoundland called?
1. Grand Cayman
2. Great Lagoon
3. Grand Banks
4. Fishing Haven
Guantanamo Bay is located in what country?
1. Cuba
2. Aruba
3. Puerto Rico
4. Trinidad
Through what waterway does most of the surface cargo between Asia and Europe pass?
1. Panama Canal
2. Dardanelles Channel
3. Turkish Straits
4. Suez Canal
"Jumbo" oil tankers steaming from Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iraq, and the United Arab Emirates to their major customer-nations must go
1. through the Suez Canal.
2. around the Strait of Bab el Mandeb.
3. around the Cape of Good Hope in South Africa.
4. through the Strait of Gibraltar and around Japan.
Which waterway could be a strategic "chokepoint" limiting access to the Russia's Baltic Sea Fleet in the North Atlantic and North Sea?
1. Strait of Gibraltar
2. Cape of Good Hope
3. Danish Straits
4. Turkish Straits
The world's heaviest bulk cargo traffic now flows in huge oil tankers to Western Europe from (the)
1. Canada.
2. East Indies.
3. Persian Gulf.
4. South America.
What two countries continue to engage in whaling in the Antarctic Ocean?
1. Sweden and Norway
2. Iceland and Japan
3. Brazil and Argentina
4. New Zealand and Australia
What U.S controlled island in the western Pacific provides a strategic position for the United States in that area?
1. Hawaii
2. Okinawa
3. Sumatra
4. Guam
In what city is the major naval base on the west coast of the United States located?
1. San Francisco, California
2. Whidbey Island, Washington
3. San Diego, California
4. Bremerton, Washington
Which of the following Pacific island group’s is/are part of the Trust Territories of the Central Pacific?
1. Mariana Islands
2. Caroline Islands
3. Marshall Islands
4. All of the above answers are correct.
The strategic "chokepoint" in the sea route between Europe and Asia is the Strait of
1. Hormuz.
2. Malacca.
3. Magellan.
4. Good Hope.
The ocean which has yielded the largest annual catches of fish and shellfish since 1970 is the
1. Antarctic.
2. Indian.
3. Atlantic.
4. Pacific.
On what Indian Ocean island has the United States built a naval communications station and air base?
1. Diego Garcia
2. Bahrain
3. Hawaii
4. Guam
The strait that forms a strategic "chokepoint" between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman is the Strait of
1. Magellan.
2. Malacca.
3. Hormuz.
4. Aden.
That part of the continent on which Ethiopia, Djibouti, and Somalia are located is known as the
1. Cape of Good Hope.
2. Horn of Africa.
3. Cape Musandam.
4. Yemeni states.
The Persian Gulf country that was the site of the largest military ground offensive since World War II in 1991 is
1. Iran
2. Kuwait
3. Saudi Arabia
4. Syria
What is the third largest ocean in the world?
1. Antarctic
2. Atlantic
3. Pacific
4. Indian
What sea lies between the Suez Canal and the Gulf of Aden?
1. Black Sea
2. White Sea
3. Red Sea
4. Yellow Sea
What percentage of the oil needs of the United States comes from the Persian Gulf area?
1. 40
2. 50
3. 30
4. 60
Which of the following, if any, is the reason there is a large variety of fish living in the Persian Gulf?
1. There are many rivers feeding into the Persian Gulf.
2. The Persian Gulf is very shallow.
3. The Persian Gulf has very low salt content.
4. None of the above
U. S. naval facilities built in the Indian Ocean at Diego Garcia Australia are principally
1. naval operating bases.
2. ship repair facilities.
3. intelligence and weather units.
4. communications stations.
The headquarters for the Russian Pacific Fleet is located at
1. Nakhodka.
2. Komsomolsk.
3. Vladivostok.
4. Sovetskaya.
Most of the shrimp, tuna, and lobster caught in the Indian Ocean are canned or frozen for sale in
1. Japan.
2. Taiwan.
3. the United States.
4. Korea.
By far the largest of the world's oceans is the
1. Atlantic.
2. Pacific.
3. Indian.
4. Antarctic.
The deepest part of the Pacific ocean is the
1. Java Trench.
2. South Sandwich Trench.
3. Cayman Trench.
4. Marianas Trench.
Lying in great belts and fields across the Pacific are chunks or modules of almost pure metals, the largest percentage of which is
1. lead.
2. copper.
3. nickel.
4. manganese.
Fisheries in the Gulf of Alaska and along the Washington and Oregon coast reap a great harvest of
1. cod and flounder.
2. salmon and pollock.
3. red snapper.
4. sardines and anchovies.
The U. S. Third Fleet headquarters is located at
1. Pearl Harbor, Hawaii.
2. Yokosuka, Japan.
3. Seattle, Washington.
4. San Diego, California.
In the event of war in the Pacific, the U.S. Navy's task is to
1. protect the supply lines to deployed forces.
2. keep the sea-lanes open to allies.
3. protect U. S. possessions.
4. All of the above must be accomplished.
The United States has important mutual defense treaties with
1. Japan.
2. South Korea, and the Philippines.
3. Australia and New Zealand.
4. All of the above answers are correct.
Since full diplomatic recognition and exchange of ambassadors was achieved in 1979, United States relations have improved with the most populated nation on earth, the
1. Union of Soviet Socialist Republics.
2. People's Republic of China.
3. Taiwan (Nationalist).
4. Republic of the Philippines.
The Antarctic seas are called circumpolar because
1. more than half of it freezes over each winter.
2. they surround the south polar continent.
3. the continental shelf of Antarctica is very narrow.
4. All of the above.
Personnel at the U. S. naval base at McMurdo Sound, Antarctica are involved with
1. exploration.
2. cold-weather equipment testing.
3. basic research on south polar marine life and weather.
4. All of the above answers are correct.
One of the key navigation chokepoints in the world is in the Indian Ocean at
1. the Strait of Malacca.
2. Bab el Mandeb.
3. Suez.
4. Strait of Hormuz.
The body of water that lies between Suez and Bab el Maneb is the
1. Persian Gulf.
2. Red Sea.
3. Arabian Sea.
4. Gulf of Aden.
When naval units from either the Ukrainian Black Sea Fleet or from the U. S. Sixth Fleet want to move quickly into the Indian Ocean, they must go through the
1. Suez Canal.
2. Red Sea.
3. Straits of Bab el Mandeb.
4. All of the above.
The major customer-nations of Persian oil are
1. the Russian States.
2. the United States, Western Europe, and Japan.
3. India, Southeast Asia, and Australia.
4. Central and South America.
A protracted war of attrition in the Persian Gulf area was fought from 1980 to 1988 between
1. Syria and Israel.
2. Egypt and Israel.
3. Iran and Saudi Arabia.
4. Iran and Iraq.
The major oil-producing country in the world is
1. Iran.
2. the Russian Commonwealth.
3. Saudi Arabia.
4. All of the above.
In what body of water in the Pacific Ocean are huge crabs, lobsters, and shrimp caught?
1. Morro Bay
2. San Diego Bay
3. Gulf of Baja
4. Gulf of Alaska
The tremendous formation of coral which runs more than 1,250 miles along the coast of northern Australia is named the
1. Great Barrier Reef.
2. East Pacific Rise.
3. Coral Sea Reef.
4. Coral East.
The Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands is administered and defended by
1. Japan.
2. New Zealand.
3. the United States on behalf of the United Nations.
4. Great Britain and Australia on behalf of the United Nations.
This continent is of little or no strategic interest to the major nations because it is out of the mainstream of sea and air routes.
1. Antarctica
2. India
3. Africa
4. Asia
CONTINENTAL DRIFT is
1. slow separation of continents over time.
2. erosion of continental seacoasts.
3. pile-up of dirt caused by wind.
4. floating across an ocean between continents.
A SEISMOGRAPH is
1. an apparatus used to measure and record earthquakes in the Earth
2. an apparatus used to measure and record water movement in the oceans
3. an apparatus used to measure and record air movement over the oceans
4. an apparatus that can forecast Earth movement
GEOLOGICAL PLATES are
1. a flat region of the earth's surface.
2. ancient artifacts used for eating.
3. large flat circular rock formations.
4. large segments of the earth's surface.
OCEANOGRAPHY is
1. a science that studies what happens on, in and under the
2. a science that deals with man's make-up.
3. a science that deals with seagoing vessels.
4. a science that deals with the way the rivers are used.
EROSION is
1. capable of being eroded.
2. movement of water.
3. the action or process of washing or wearing away.
4. water measurement.
The ASTHENOSPHERE is
1. the lowest layer of land.
2. the uppermost layer of the sea.
3. the uppermost layer of the atmosphere.
4. the uppermost layer of the Earth's mantle.
The LITHOSPHERE is the
1. earth's inner core.
2. earth's crust.
3. earth's mantle.
4. earth's core.
A COSMOLOGIST is
1. one who deals in or applies make-up.
2. one who is skilled in articles of costume.
3. one who deals with the origin and structure of the universe.
4. one who studies cosmopolitan areas of a country.
A SOLAR SYSTEM is
1. the sun, planets, and their moons.
2. the middle of the body.
3. a collection of nearby stars.
4. the laws by which the sun moves in orbit.
The Earth's Mantle is
1. a dirt covering.
2. the earth's shadow in space.
3. the earth's magnetic field.
4. the layer of the earth's interior between the crust and the core.
A TSUNAMI is
1. a great sea wall produced by volcanic eruption.
2. a great sea wave produced by Earth movement.
3. earth movement that is caused by winds.
4. a great sea wave that is produced by high winds.
Scientists have divided the Earth into four shells or layers. From the center of the planet out to the surface, what are the names of the layers?
1. Outer core, lithosphere, core and crust
2. Inner core, outer core, mantle and crust
3. Crust, mantle, outer core and inner core
4. Outer core, inner core, mantle and crust
The rough outer crust of the Earth which rides on the molten rock of the upper part of the mantle is called the
1. lithosphere.
2. asthenosphere.
3. outer core.
4. core.
The core of the Earth is made up of
1. copper and cobalt.
2. iron and nickel.
3. zinc and silver.
4. gold and platinum.
The movement of the Earth's land masses is known as the theory of
1. continental shelf.
2. continental divide.
3. continental drift.
4. continental shift.
Poisonous ammonia and methane gases in the Earth's atmosphere were dissipated by
1. gravity
2. the coriolis effect
3. the sun
4. all of the above
What is the name that scientists give to the original supercontinent that made up all the land mass of Earth 200 million years ago?
1. Laurasia
2. Gondwanaland
3. Pangaea
4. Eurasia
How are submarine canyons formed?
1. Glaciation
2. Tidal currents
3. Underwater currents and landslides
4. All of the above
The bottom of the ocean is referred to as the deep ocean, the deep sea, the deep ocean basin or the
1. abyss.
2. height.
3. summit.
4. seamount.
Echo sounding is used to determine the
1. physical and chemical properties of the sea.
2. speed of water as it moves.
3. speed of sound in water.
4. depth to the ocean bottom.
Coring tubes are used to
1. collect water samples.
2. collect ocean bottom sediments at different depths.
3. collect gold from the bottom of the ocean.
4. collect sands from the continental shelf and slope.
Sea islands are formed by erupting
1. guyots.
2. atolls.
3. volcanoes.
4. seamounts.
Beyond the continental shelf, the ocean bottom drops off
1. very gradually
2. suddenly
3. about 7 to 10 feet per mile
4. not at all
Which underwater terrain feature lies between the continental shelf and the deep ocean basin?
1. The deep sea floor
2. The continental slope
3. The submarine canyon
4. The abyss
Underwater mountains with flattened tops that never reach the surface are known as what?
1. Atolls
2. Lagoons
3. Guyots
4. Seamounts
The purest natural source of water is
1. snow
2. rain
3. fast-flowing rivers
4. mountain lakes
The chemical composition of water is
1. two parts oxygen to one part hydrogen
2. one part hydrogen to one part oxygen
3. one part oxygen to two parts hydrogen
4. two parts hydrogen to two parts oxygen
Water exists as a liquid between the temperatures of
1. 32 and 212 degrees Fahrenheit
2. 0 and 100 degrees Fahrenheit
3. 32 and 212 degrees Celsius
4. -1 and 220 degrees Ceslsius
What happens to water as it freezes?
1. It contracts.
2. Its volume remains stable
3. It becomes more dense.
4. It expands
Water absorbs and loses heat
1. more quickly than land
2. at about the same rate as land
3. more slowly than land
4. water does not absorb heat
The speed of sound in water is
1. greater than in air and increases with temperature
2. greater than in air but decreases as temperature increases
3. slower than in air and increases with temperature
4. slower than in air and decreases as temperature increases
Chemically, seawater is
1. 70% water
2. 85% water
3. 90% water
4. over 95% water
The most common substance other than water in seawater is
1. Magnesium Chloride
2. Sodium Chloride
3. Magnesium Sulfate
4. Calcium Carbonate
The only chemicals currently taken from ocean water commercially are
1. Sodium and Calcium
2. Magnesium and Bromine
3. Potassium and Fluorine
4. Boron and Iodine
____________ is a device for measuring water temperature at different depths
1. A hydrothermograph
2. A thermohydrograph
3. A bathythermograph
4. A hydrothermometer
The top layer of an oceans light environment is the
1. twilight zone
2. lighted zone
3. bright zone
4. dark zone
The second layer of an ocean's light environment, which is violet in color, is the
1. twilight zone
2. lighted zone
3. bright zone
4. dark zone
The third layer of an ocean's light environment, a thick layer where no plants grow, is the
1. twilight zone
2. lighted zone
3. bright zone
4. dark zone
_________ is the most common cause of sea waves.
1. Earthquake
2. Volcano
3. Submarine Landslide
4. Wind
A ______ is a long, smooth wave coming from a distant storm.
1. tsunami
2. fetch
3. swell
4. breaker
The top of a wave is called the
1. trough
2. wavelength
3. crest
4. period
The lowest part of a wave is called the
1. period
2. trough
3. crest
4. wavelength
Waves, tides, and currents wear down and change coastal outlines in a process called
1. refraction
2. the Coriolis effect
3. erosion
4. convection
The most common structure built to protect harbors is a line of concrete-reinforced big rocks called the
1. groin
2. levy
3. jetty
4. breakwater
_______ are strong, seaward-moving currents that occur along some shores.
1. Breakwaters
2. Rip Currents
3. Longshore currents
4. Surf
The circular flow of warm water cooling and sinking near the poles and cool water warming and rising near the equator is called
1. convection
2. the Coriolis effect
3. Rip Currents
4. Longshore Currents
The most important ocean current affecting the United States and its entire Atlantic seaboard is called
1. the Kuroshio Current
2. the Gulf Stream
3. the North Equatorial Current
4. the North Atlantic Drift
This ocean current flows northwestward from Japan's Ryukyu Islands.
1. The Pacific Current
2. The Ryukyu Current
3. The Kuroshio Current
4. The Canaries Current
The main cause of tides is
1. the rotation of the earth
2. winds
3. the moon
4. the sun
During the new and full moons, the tides are highest and lowest because the forces of the sun and moon work together. The resulting tides are called
1. neap tides
2. ebb tides
3. flow tides
4. spring tides
Halfway between the new and full moon, when the forces of the sun and moon are opposed, there is less difference between low and high tides. These tides are called
1. neap tides
2. ebb tides
3. flow tides
4. spring tides
The movement of a tide away from shore is called
1. ebb
2. flood
3. high tide
4. low tide
The movement of a tide toward the shore is called
1. ebb
2. high tide
3. flood
4. low tide
In areas where high tide is common, twice daily the tide can sweep up a river in a
1. tidal surge
2. tidal current
3. rip current
4. countercurrent
Tidal energy can be used to generate electricity by
1. using tidal motion to turn turbines
2. using chemicals in tidal water
3. using temperature changes during tides
4. using water pressure changes during tides
What surf height is considered to be the critical height for normal amphibious landings on an average beach?
1. Six feet
2. Four feet
3. Two feet
4. Ten feet
What causes the Red Sea to appear red?
1. Large amounts of red-tinted krill and shrimp in these waters.
2. Copper deposits on the bottom of the Red Sea.
3. Red phytoplankton in the water.
4. The Red Sea does not appear red.
What is the name of a long, smooth wave coming from a distant storm center?
1. Trough
2. Roll
3. Swell
4. Pitch
Where does the Sargasso Sea lie?
1. In the Arctic Ocean, off the coast of Russia.
2. In the North Atlantic Ocean off of the southeastern U.S. coast.
3. In the Southern Atlantic Ocean, off of Brazil.
4. In the Indian Ocean, between Pakistan and India.
Submarine cables containing telephone and electric power, and underwater pipelines, have been attacked by shrimplike animals called
1. Teredos.
2. Barracudas.
3. Gribbles.
4. Moray eels.
What is the name of the microscopic plants that start the food chain in the seas of the world?
1. Proteins
2. Zooplankton
3. Nutrients
4. Phytoplankton
The science that deals with life and the contents of the seas is known as
1. zoology.
2. marine biology.
3. marine cycles.
4. marine chemistry.
Upwelling is caused by the
1. movement of ships across the oceans.
2. Sea animals of the oceans.
3. Movement of the winds.
4. Vertical circulation of water.
What are the benefits of upwelling for marine life?
1. Decayed nutrients are forced to the surface
2. Decayed nutrients are forced to the bottom of the sea
3. It causes high tides
4. It causes low tides
What is the most destructive oceanographic condition for marine life in the oceans of the world?
1. Sunlight
2. Upwelling
3. Large sea animals
4. El Nino
A hydrogen sulfide layer that begins about 200 feet below the surface and ends all life from that point downward gives its name to the
1. Red Sea.
2. Blue Sea.
3. Black Sea.
4. Yellow Sea.
Most sea animals live in the
1. Shallow water at the edge of the sea.
2. Deep-water seaward of the continental slope.
3. Water seaward of the low tide level and above the continental shelf.
4. deep areas of the ocean that are above the berm line near the continental slope.
High underwater plateaus with an abundance of marine vegetation are
1. best for commercial fishing.
2. important for the development of sea waves.
3. outstanding for underwater navigation of submarines.
4. hazards for the larger marine animals of the deep oceans.
Zooplankton is defined as
1. plants in a zoo.
2. tiny animal life in the sea.
3. tiny plant life in the sea.
4. photosynthesis in the sea.
A flesh-eating animal or mammal is referred to as
1. a vegetarian.
2. carnivorous.
3. herbivorous.
4. none of the above.
Aquaculture involves
1. examining water for mineral content.
2. extracting mineral resources from sea animals.
3. applying natural procedures for harvesting sea animals.
4. applying farming methods to grow and harvest sea animals and plants.
The most poisonous of all fish are the
1. scorpionfish.
2. weeverfish.
3. jellyfish.
4. mollusks.
A bathyscaphe is a
1. type of SCUBA gear.
2. Deep Submergence Rescue Vessel (DSRV).
3. Floating Instrument Platform (FLIP ship).
4. free-moving underwater research vessel similar to a submarine.
At one time man was prevented from going into the deep sea because of the
1. lack of air.
2. pressures of the water.
3. utter darkness.
4. All of the above.
The most common of all the plants in the sea are
1. kelp.
2. algae.
3. sea plants.
4. sea ferns.
Over 1,000 years ago a complex ecological fish-farming system was developed. In what country was this system developed?
1. Japan
2. Spain
3. China
4. America
The sea probably contains over 30,000 species of fish and other sea life. Of this large number, how many kinds of fish and shellfish are used for food in the United States?
1. 200
2. 300
3. 400
4. 500
The major cause of serious pollution problems in inland and coastal waters of the world is the
1. amount of basic research in nuclear power plants.
2. large amounts of soil erosion from cultivated land.
3. continuing increase in commerce and navigation.
4. continued dumping of sewage and industrial waste into these waters.
The Navy is called upon to help eliminate oil pollution in U.S. waters by working closely with the
1. Department of Commerce and the Defense Mapping Agency.
2. Federal Bureau of Investigation and Army Intelligence.
3. Environmental Protection Agency and the U.S. Coast Guard.
4. U.S. Merchant Marine and the Defense Investigative Service.
The Navy's Environmental Protection Program involves
1. air pollution control equipment on all ships.
2. equipping ships with sewage holding systems.
3. installing solid waste disposal facilities.
4. all of the above.
What is meteorology?
1. Weather prediction and scientific research
2. Science of weather
3. Study of air current advantages
4. Development of weather instruments
Which of the following was a factor that allowed air-mass frontal forecasting to become highly developed?
1. Synoptic meteorology
2. Weather observation
3. Aviation advancement
4. Applied meteorology
What is regarded as the first step in development of meteorology as a science?
1. Invention of the hygrometer
2. Development of the wind-measuring devices
3. Invention of the thermometer
4. Development of the barometer
In the atmosphere, traces of gaseous elements, such as helium, are present as far out as
1. 10,000 miles
2. 12,000 miles
3. 14,000 miles
4. 18,000 miles
A cubic foot of water at the ocean's surface weighs about the same as a cubic foot from the bottom of the Marianas Trench because
1. The chemical makeup of both is the same
2. Water at the surface has a greater density than water at the bottom
3. Water is nearly incompresible
4. Water at the bottom has a greater density than water at the surface
The five principal layers of the atmosphere arranged from lowest to highest are
1. stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere and exosphere
2. troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere and exosphere
3. mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere and exosphere
4. thermosphere, mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, and exosphere
Nearly all clouds are in what atmospheric layer?
1. Stratosphere
2. Ionosphere
3. Troposphere
4. Exosphere
In the summer, what zones are jet streams over?
1. Temperate
2. Tropic
3. North of most of the main commercial air lanes
4. Transitional
Temperature in the stratosphere averages a fairly constant
1. 0 degrees F to 20 degrees F
2. 15 degrees F to 50 degrees F
3. 60 degrees F to 100 degrees F
4. -40 degrees F to -50 degrees F
In a process called "transpiration", huge amounts of water enter the air from
1. evaporation
2. photosynthesis
3. green leaves of plants
4. the melting of both polar ice caps
The relative humidity of an air mass ___________ as that air mass cools.
1. increases
2. decreases
3. stays the same
4. decreases to dew point, then increases
The temperature at which a given body of air reaches saturation is called
1. relative humidity
2. condensation level
3. dew point
4. relative temperature
Weather is the condition of the
1. Temperature
2. Atmosphere
3. Water vapor
4. Air
The temperature at which a given body of air reaches saturation is called
1. relative humidity
2. condensation level
3. dew point
4. relative temperature
When warm and cold air masses come together, the boundary between them is called a?
1. Thermal front
2. Weather front
3. Front
4. Stationary front
What is the closest atmospheric layer to the earth?
1. Stratosphere
2. Exosphere
3. Troposphere
4. Thermosphere
Barometers may be graduated in either inches of mercury or ____________.
1. Water
2. Millibars
3. Humidity
4. Both a and b
An air mass is a large body of air with?
1. the same temperature and pressure
2. the same humidity and pressure
3. the same temperature and humidity
4. none of the above
What is exosphere?
1. The outer layer of a sphere.
2. Top most top layer in the atmosphere.
3. Lies above the tropopause.
4. The ocean of air just above the earth's surface
What is the freezing point of water?
1. 60 degrees Celsius
2. -2 degrees Celsius
3. 0 degrees Celsius
4. 32 degrees Celsius
What is a thermometer?
1. An instrument used to measure distance
2. An instrument used to measure temperature
3. An instrument used to measure weight
4. A musical instrument
Two ordinary therometers mounted together on a single strip of material:
1. Psychrometer
2. Celcius
3. Airmass
4. Jetstream
What was the first meteorological instrument?
1. Barometer
2. Hygrometer
3. Thermometer
4. Wind-measuring device
Who developed a system for organizing weather observations?
1. Galileo
2. Leverrier
3. Bjerknes
4. Normandy
In 1812, what was one major factor in Napoleon's defeat in Russia?
1. The severe winter
2. Delay due storm warning
3. Gales and poor visibility
4. A bad storm
In World War II, why was Hitler defeated in Russia?
1. The wet monsoons
2. A bad storm
3. Gales and poor visibility
4. The winter
What activity is associated with Vilhelm Bjerknes?
1. Developed a crude hygrometer in 15th century
2. Invented the first thermometer
3. Developed air-mass and polar-front theories of weather
4. Developed frontal forecasting
Who invented the thermometer?
1. Bjerknes
2. Galilei
3. Leverrier
4. Normandy
What meteorological instrument(s) was/were developed in the 17th century?
1. Crude hygrometer
2. First simple thermometer
3. Improved hygrometer
4. Barometers, Wind-measuring devices, and improved thermometers
Who developed the first hygrometer?
1. Galileo
2. Da Vinci
3. Vespucci
4. D'Antonio
What atmospheric layer is the ocean of air immediately above the Earth's surface?
1. Exosphere
2. Thermosphere
3. Mesosphere
4. Troposphere
What atmospheric layer lies just above the tropopause and extends to an altitude of about 30 miles?
1. Chemosphere
2. Ionosphere
3. Stratosphere
4. Exosphere
What is the topmost layer or outer fringe of the atmosphere?
1. Chemosphere
2. Exosphere
3. Thermosphere
4. Ionosphere
What layer within the ionspheric region shields the Earth from the harmful ultraviolet rays of the Sun?
1. Chemosphere
2. Exosphere
3. Thermosphere
4. Mesosphere
What layer within the ionospheric region extends about 30-50 miles above the Earth and is subject to extreme temperature changes?
1. Chemosphere
2. Exosphere
3. Thermosphere
4. Mesosphere
What is another name for the ozone layer?
1. Ionosphere
2. Exosphere
3. Chemosphere
4. Mesosphere
What is a stationary front?
1. Violent frontal system
2. When warm moves over cold
3. When neither warm nor cold air masses advance on each other
4. The boundary between warm and cold
Which of the following statements best describes the aneroid barometer?
1. Consists of an accurately calibrated glass tube, filled with mercury.
2. Always employed abroad ship.
3. Contains a small metallic cell, which expands when pressure decreases and vice versa.
4. Indicates variations in atmospheric pressure on a scale.
In what atmospheric layer are the Van Allen radiation belts?
1. Mesosphere
2. Chemosphere
3. Exosphere
4. Thermosphere
Which of the following statements best describe the ionosphere?
1. Lowest layer extends from about 30-50 miles above the Earth.
2. The transitional zone is between the troposphere and the near void of the stratosphere.
3. Lies just above the tropopause and extends to an altitude of about 30 miles.
4. Begins about 500 miles above the Earth's surface, and continues out to about 18,000 miles.
Relative humidity and dewpoint are measured by using the
1. Celsius scale thermometer.
2. Millibars.
3. Aneroid barometer.
4. Psychrometer.
How many jet streams normally move over the North American continent in winter?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
As maritime air moves over land, it tends to bring temperatures that are
1. freezing.
2. moderate.
3. mild.
4. hot.
How many kinds of air masses are there?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
Weather is the condition of the atmosphere expressed in terms of
1. air's temperature, pressure, and water vapor content.
2. heat, pressure, cold and wind.
3. cold air, warm air, pressure, and water vapor content.
4. heat, pressure, wind, and moisture.
In the summer, the United States is swept by air masses from
1. Mexico, Canada, West Indies and Cuba.
2. Indian Ocean, Pacific Ocean and Panama Canal.
3. Gulf of Mexico, Caribbean Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
4. Gulf of Mexico, Caribbean Sea and Pacific Ocean.
What is convection?
1. Automatic temperature change in rising or falling air
2. Air heated by the Earth rises and is replaced by cooler air descending from higher altitudes
3. Ocean of air immediately above the Earth's surface
4. Transitional zone between the troposphere and near void of the stratosphere
Why is the air circulation in the troposphere important?
1. Pilots favor this level for flying.
2. Extremely high and deadly temperatures exist in this level.
3. Troposphere is the end of our air ocean; beyond it is outer space.
4. Determines the weather.
How many atoms are in an ozone molecule?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Six
What is the boiling point of the Celsius scale?
1. 25 degrees
2. 32 degrees
3. 100 degrees
4. 212 degrees
In the winter, what zones are jet streams over?
1. Polar
2. Temperate
3. Tropic
4. Polar and Transitional
Water vapor in the air is called
1. rain.
2. fog.
3. steam.
4. humidity.
What is the formula for changing degrees in Fahrenheit to degrees in Celsius?
1. Celsius =5/9 [F-32]
2. Celsius =9/5 [32-F]
3. Celsius =5/9 [F/ 32]
4. Celsius =9/5F [-32+F]
Changes in weather are caused by
1. air's temperature, water vapor content, pressure
2. atmosphere, wind, air's temperature
3. atmospheric pressure, moisture
4. heat, pressure, moisture
Who developed a system for organizing weather observations?
1. Galileo
2. Leverrier
3. Bjerknes
4. Normandy
What is synoptic meteorology?
1. Frontal forecasting
2. Organized weather observations
3. General view of the weather
4. Development of air-mass and polar front theories
Fragments of matter that are present in the atmosphere and essential to cloud formation are called
1. hydroscopic nuclei
2. "seeds"
3. hydronuclei
4. hygroscopic nuclei
The three basic cloud types are
1. altocumulus, cumulonimbus, altostratus
2. alto cirrus, altocumulus, cumulonimbus
3. low, middle, high
4. cirrus, cumulus, stratus
Clouds are usually named according to their
1. height
2. appearance
3. elevation above ground
4. water phase (solid or liquid)
Dense puffy clouds with a beautiful cauliflower appearance are called
1. altocumulus
2. cumulus
3. nimbus
4. cumulonimbus
Middle clouds with bases beginning about 10,000 feet are denoted by the prefix
1. strato
2. nimbo
3. alto
4. cumulo
Severe thunderstorms and tornadoes are associated with these clouds:
1. cumulonimbus
2. cumulus
3. stratus
4. stratocumulus
The average raindrop is ________ times larger than a cloud droplet
1. one hundred
2. one thousand
3. one million
4. two
The process of cloud droplets combining with one another and falling as rain or snow is called _________.
1. hygroscopic nuclei
2. precipitation
3. advection
4. coalescence
What occurs when rain falls from warm air through a layer of freezing air?
1. rain
2. hail
3. sleet
4. snow
Which of the following does not fall from the sky?
1. frost
2. hail
3. rain
4. sleet
Why do clouds form above Islands?
1. Mountains stop the cloud movement
2. Moisture rises from vegetation, meets cooler air and condenses
3. Land is cooler than water
4. There is no wind over the Island
Fog formation requires the presence of___________.
1. warm temperature only
2. cold temperature only
3. a combination of warm and cold temperature
4. clouds
Fog at sea is frequently formed through a process known as _________.
1. precipitation
2. advection
3. coalescence
4. hygroscopic nuclei
Fog formed by cold air moving over warm water is called _____________.
1. frontal fog
2. "pea soup"
3. radiation fog
4. "sea smoke"
Dry ice or silver-iodide crystals are used for _____________
1. cloud seeding
2. making clouds
3. making fog
4. clearing fog
The presence of Altocumulus clouds means _________________.
1. it will snow
2. that rain will probably occur within twenty-four hours
3. it will sleet
4. nothing will occur
What types of clouds do not leave shadows on the earth?
1. cirrus
2. cirrocumulus
3. cirrostratus
4. altostratus
Hail usually occurs in the _________________.
1. spring
2. fall
3. winter
4. summer
What determines whether or not there will be precipitation?
1. clouds and hygroscopic nuclei
2. clouds and temperature
3. temperature and hygroscopic nuclei
4. advection and coalescence
PRECIPITATION is
1. volcanic Ash.
2. rain, snow, sleet and hail.
3. dust.
4. nuclear fallout.
What are three steps in the atmospheric water cycle?
1. Convection, Adiabatic, and Transpiration
2. Heat, Pressure, and Wind
3. Evaporation, Condensation, and Precipitation
4. Evaporation, Transpiration, and Convection
The two elements necessary for the formation of a cloud are
1. water and solar energy.
2. hygroscope nuclei and dust.
3. water vapor and hygroscope nuclei.
4. hygroscope nuclei and energy from the sun.
What cloud is the lowest cloud type?
1. Cumulonimbus
2. Nimbostratus
3. Cirrus
4. Stratus
Which of the following is a process by which tiny water droplets grow into large raindrops?
1. Coalation
2. Coalescence
3. Convection
4. Rainmaking
Earthbound moisture evaporates into the atmosphere as the result of the
1. sun's energy.
2. condensation process.
3. Coriolis Effect.
4. lowering of the cloud ceiling.
What does the prefix "Fracto" mean?
1. Fragmented or wind-blown
2. Rain ladened or wind-blown
3. Fragmented and rain ladened
4. Supersaturated and fragmented
How many types of middle clouds are there?
1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
Which types of clouds are referred to as "mare's tails"?
1. Cumulonimbus
2. Altostratus
3. Stratus
4. Cirrus
What type of precipitation can be expected from stratus clouds?
1. Snow
2. Drizzle
3. Heavy rain
4. Thunderstorms
Which of the following statements best describes steam fog?
1. A low-lying cloud, near or touching the surface of the earth
2. Usually lifts before noon, having been "burned" away by the sun
3. Indicates that clear and cold weather can be forecast
4. Formed by air saturation
Generally middle clouds can be observed at
1. 1,000 to 3,000 feet.
2. 3,000 to 5,000 feet.
3. 7,000 to 20,000 feet.
4. 20,000 feet and above.
Silver iodide crystals have been successfully used to
1. lower cloud ceilings and cause rain to fall.
2. convert cumulonimbus into cumulus clouds.
3. artificially seed clouds and cause rain to fall.
4. cause moisture-laden cirrus clouds to freeze into ice crystals.
Grouped by appearance and altitude, how many general cloud types are there?
1. Nine
2. Ten
3. Eleven
4. Twelve
High clouds are composed almost entirely of tiny ice crystals. The three basic types are
1. Altocumulus, Altostratus and Stratus.
2. Cirrocumulus, Cirrostratus and Cirrus.
3. Nimbostratus, Stratus and Stratocumulus.
4. Cirrus, Stratus and Cirrocumulus.
Clouds are formed by
1. rising moisture from the earth that condenses when it meets cooler air aloft.
2. moisture from frozen carbon dioxide.
3. ice crystal-meeting silver iodide in the upper atmosphere.
4. moisture droplets.
What do we call low-lying clouds that nearly touch the surface of the Earth?
1. Rain.
2. Fog.
3. Steam.
4. All of the above answers are correct.
Water vapor that changes directly into ice crystals on contact with objects on Earth, without first changing into dew, is called
1. fog.
2. steam.
3. snow.
4. frost.
Fragments of dust, sand, pollen, smoke and salt particles present in the air are called
1. nimbostratus.
2. hygroscope nuclei.
3. altocumulus
4. crystalline cloud.
Persons who study weather patterns are called
1. meteorologists.
2. aerographers.
3. climatologists.
4. All of the above are correct answers.
Cumulonimbus are very dense clouds whose thunderheads start at almost any altitude and may extend to heights of as much as
1. 7,000 feet.
2. 20,000 feet.
3. 75,000 feet.
4. 99,000 feet.
Fog that is caused by the evaporation of precipation in December and January is called
1. coastal fog.
2. common fog.
3. frontal fog.
4. steam fog.
Water vapor that condenses on objects that have cooled below the condensation point of the air around it is known as
1. dew.
2. fog.
3. frost.
4. snow.
Fog that is caused by heat that the Earth emits is called
1. freezing fog.
2. sea fog.
3. smoke fog.
4. radiation fog.
Great fog areas often occur off Newfoundland because the
1. warm air over Japanese Current meets the cold current from the Bering Sea.
2. warm air over the Gulf Stream meets the colder inshore currents coming south from Greenland.
3. colder air over the Gulf Stream meets the warm inshore currents moving eastward from the Gulf of St. Lawrence.
4. All of the above are correct answers.
"Nimbus" is a word that means
1. rain
2. thunder
3. lightning
4. hail
Why does the wind blow?
1. Sunspots
2. The moon's gravitational pull
3. An attempt to achieve balance in atmospheric pressure
4. Tidal shifts
At what angle to the sun is the earth inclined?
1. 15?
2. 30?
3. 23.5?
4. 23?
What is the phrase that describes the earth's incline to the sun?
1. The solar angle
2. The plane of the ecliptic
3. The rotational theorem
4. The plane of rotation
What are the bands of easterly winds located at the surface and on the pole-ward sides of the Doldrums called?
1. Polar south easterlies
2. Prevailing winds
3. Northeast
4. Trade Winds
What word describes airflow outward from the center of a high-pressure area?
1. divergence
2. supersonic
3. turbulence
4. convergence
What are the winds between 60? latitude and both poles called?
1. Prevailing west easterlies
2. Trade winds
3. Polar easterlies
4. The Doldrums
What is the name of the infamous valley wind system that is always a concern for the 6th Fleet in the western Mediterranean Sea?
1. The winds of Gibraltar
2. Mediterranean Cyclone
3. The Mistral
4. The Santa Ana winds
What is the name of the only permanent low-pressure area on the earth?
1. The polar regions
2. The Doldrum Belt
3. The North African Current
4. The trade winds
Where do monsoon winds characteristically occur?
1. Southern Europe
2. Africa
3. South and Southeast Asia
4. South America
Traveling low-pressure cells which frequently interact with each other, such as polar air to the north and the maritime tropical air to the south, are referred to as
1. highs and lows.
2. migratory lows.
3. stationary lows.
4. sub-tropical lows.
What is the name of the equipment used to measure wind speed and direction?
1. Psychrometer
2. Anemometer
3. Hygrometer
4. Odometer
The effect that causes wind deflection due to the Earth's rotation is called the
1. Coriolis Effect.
2. Cornelious Effect.
3. Geostropic Wind Deflection.
4. Sub-tropical High Pressure Belt.
The low-pressure belt of the polar front zone lies how many degrees north and south latitude?
1. 10 degrees north and south latitudes.
2. 40 degrees north and south latitudes.
3. 60 degrees north and south latitudes.
4. 90 degrees north and south latitudes.
The flow of air at the surface in a high-pressure area is described as
1. advecting.
2. converging.
3. deflecting.
4. diverging.
From which direction do the winds blow during the Winter Monsoon?
1. Northeast
2. Southwest
3. Northwest
4. Southeast
What percentage of the Earth’s landmasses is located in the southern hemisphere?
1. 85
2. 75
3. 5
4. 25
What are the winds called that prevail in both hemispheres between the equator and 30 degrees of latitude?
1. Prevailing Westerlies
2. Trade Winds
3. Easterlies
4. Doldrums
What is the area called that is located between the Polar Easterlies and the Prevailing Westerlies?
1. Intertropical Convergence Zone
2. Sub-tropical High Pressure Belt
3. Polar Frontal Zone
4. Trade Belt
Strong winter high-pressure circulations are located over Greenland, North America and
1. Western Europe.
2. North Africa.
3. Australia.
4. Siberia.
Surface winds which flow into a center and rise define an area of
1. convergence.
2. divergence.
3. coriolis.
4. pressure.
What movement of the Earth causes the seasons?
1. Inclination
2. Revolution
3. Rotation
4. Tilting
Local lows often form directly below large
1. trade winds.
2. high clouds.
3. polar fronts.
4. thunderhead clouds.
At what latitude are the Sub-tropical High Pressure Belts located?
1. 10 degrees north and south
2. 30 degrees north and south
3. 45 degrees south and north
4. 60 degrees south and north
The Earth is closest to the Sun in the
1. Fall.
2. Spring.
3. Winter.
4. Summer.
What is a major factor in the formation of mountain winds?
1. High pressure
2. Topography
3. Low pressure
4. Heating
A low-pressure cell associated with the Polar Front and influenced by the Japanese Current refers to which of the following?
1. Gulf Stream
2. migratory Lows
3. Aleutian Low off Alaska
4. Icelandic Low
Which of the following is an example of mountain winds?
1. Mistrals of southern France
2. Tornadoes of south Florida
3. Chinook Winds of southern California
4. Foehn winds of the Swiss and French Alps
The only permanent low-pressure area on Earth is the
1. Aleutian Low off Alaska.
2. Polar Front.
3. Doldrum Belt.
4. Cape Hatteras offshore low.
Under international agreement, wind speed is always given in
1. miles per-hour.
2. feet per-second.
3. knots.
4. All of the above answers are correct.
A scale in which the face of the wind is indicated by numbers from 1 to 12 is named
1. Wind Scale.
2. Anemometer Scale.
3. Wind Gage.
4. Beaufort Wind Scale.
In North America what is another name for air that flows around a high-pressure center?
1. Tsunami
2. Hurricane
3. Tornado
4. Anticyclones
What are the equatorial belt of light and variable converging winds called?
1. Trade winds
2. Doldrums
3. Polar easterlies
4. Prevailing
In the northern hemisphere what direction does the wind flow?
1. curving to the left
2. curving to the right
3. counter rotationally
4. elliptically
The wind belt which provides most of the general flow of air over the United States is the belt of
1. Prevailing Westerlies.
2. Polar Easterlies.
3. Northern Trades.
4. Horse Latitudes.
What tend(s) to move north and south of the geographic equator with the Sun?
1. Trade Winds
2. Polar Easterlies
3. Sub-Tropical High-Pressure
4. Doldrums
The second stage of a thunderstorm is called the __________.
1. infant Stage
2. immature Stage
3. mature Stage
4. adult Stage
The area which has more tropical cyclones than any other place on earth is
1. the North Pacific.
2. the South Pacific.
3. the southwestern part of the North Pacific.
4. the southeastern part of the North Pacific.
Which of the following forms on the forward edge of a fully developed cumulonimbus cloud?
1. Thunderstorm
2. Tornado
3. Typhoon
4. Lightning
What signal best describes the gale warning?
1. A white light above a red light at night
2. Two red light at night
3. A white light between two red lights at night
4. A red light over a white light at night
What signal best describes the small craft warning?
1. One red pennant displayed by day
2. Two red pennants displayed by day
3. A single square red flag with black center during daytime
4. Two square red flag with black centers displayed by day
What storm warning signals required one red light over a white light at night?
1. Small craft warning
2. Gale warning
3. Storm warning
4. Hurricane warning
What area or region is associated with the birth of a hurricane?
1. Intertropical Convergence Zone
2. Martha's Vineyard
3. Gulf coast
4. Occluded front
Tropical cyclones occurring east of the International Date Line in the Pacific or along the US east coast and the Gulf of Mexico are known as
1. typhoons.
2. hurricanes.
3. baguios.
4. impressions.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the mature stage of the thunderstorm?
1. Updraft of warm, moist air into the atmosphere
2. Water vapor cools and condenses into cloud
3. Updrafts and downdrafts within the storm producing cloud
4. Downdrafts take place of updrafts, and spread out
What type of front is a complex combination of boundaries between warm, cold and cool air masses?
1. Concluded
2. Secluded
3. Recluded
4. Occluded
The source of lightning in thunderhead clouds is
1. cold fronts.
2. currents.
3. electrical fuses.
4. static electricity.
What is the maximum wind velocity in a typhoon?
1. 43 knots
2. 53 knots
3. 63 knots
4. 64 knots and up
What is the final stage of a thunderstorm called?
1. Cumulus
2. Altocumulus
3. Mature
4. Dissipating or anvil
The U.S. Hurricane Warning System receives most of its information from
1. naval vessels.
2. land stations.
3. satellites.
4. reconnaissance aircraft.
The Arctic Frontal Zone develops between the true arctic air of the far North combined with the polar maritime air of the
1. Arctic and North Atlantic Oceans.
2. North Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
3. Gulf of Mexico and Pacific Oceans.
4. Indian and North Atlantic Oceans.
Tornadoes form on the forward edge of a fully developed
1. cumulonimbus cloud.
2. cirrocumulus cloud.
3. altocumulus cloud.
4. cirrus cloud.
In regard to ship maneuvering, what is the most dangerous area in a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere?
1. Right semicircle when in opposite direction to the storm movement.
2. Left semicircle when in opposite direction to the storm movement.
3. Right semicircle when in the same direction as the storm movement.
4. Left semicircle when in same directions as the storm movement.
Tropical cyclones that occur off the west coast of Australia are referred to as
1. typhoons.
2. baguios.
3. hurricanes.
4. willy-willies.
What is the best term for a tornado that forms over water?
1. Stormspout
2. Waterspout
3. Dust devil
4. Tornado
A sudden violent wind, often with rain or snow, is called a
1. tornado.
2. squall.
3. hurricane.
4. wave.
Polar fronts move toward the poles during
1. summer.
2. spring.
3. winter.
4. winter and summer.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the final stage of a thunderstorm?
1. Water vapor cools and condenses into cloud.
2. Rain falls heavily on the ground.
3. There is frictional drag between the raindrops and the surrounding air.
4. Clouds grow taller and taller.
When a cold air mass collides with a warmer air mass, the cold air usually
1. forces the warmer air downward.
2. displaces the warm air ahead of it upward.
3. forms a stationary front.
4. forms an occluded front.
Boundaries of air masses of different temperatures that collide are called
1. zones.
2. fronts.
3. slopes.
4. areas.
The mature cell of a storm usually extends above ______ feet.
1. 45000
2. 70000
3. 25000
4. 125000
A warm front is formed when a warm air mass _______ a cold air mass.
1. goes through
2. moves into
3. rises over
4. goes under
A Thunderstorm develops in ______ stages.
1. 5
2. 2
3. 1
4. 3
Cloud sequences may occur________ miles in advance of the front itself.
1. 1000
2. 2000
3. 3000
4. 4000
Which type of cloud first precedes a warm font?
1. Cirrus Clouds
2. Cirrostratus Clouds
3. Altostratus Clouds
4. Stratus Clouds
Which zone develops between the arctic air of the far north and the polar maritime air of the Pacific and Atlantic Ocean?
1. Western Fontal Zone
2. Arctic Frontal Zone
3. Polar Frontal Zone
4. Intertropical Convergence Zone
The Polar Frontal Zone develops by?
1. Cold front pushing through warm fronts
2. The convergence of air flow toward the equator
3. Two cold fronts converging and expanding
4. Two warm fronts converging and expanding
The world's primary frontal zones are?
1. Intertropical Convergence Zone, Artic Frontal Zone, and Polar Frontal Zone
2. Domestic Convergence Zone, Tropic Frontal Zone, and Tundra Polar Zone
3. Intertropical Convergence Zone, Domestic Convergence Zone, Tropic Frontal Zone
4. Polar Frontal Zone, Artic Frontal Zone, and Tundra Polar Zone
A tropical cyclone is classified as a hurricane or typhoon when it's wind speed reaches _______
1. 24 knots
2. 44 knots
3. 64 knots
4. 84 knots
What causes closed homes and barns to explode as a tornado's vortex passes overhead?
1. the tornado's updraft
2. the difference in pressure in the vortex of the tornado and the normal pressure of air trapped inside
3. the high speed of the tornado's wind
4. wind sheer
The most intense and violent of localized storms is the ______
1. topical cyclone
2. hurricane
3. typhoon
4. tornado
Flags and pennants hoisted by the National Weather Service and other shore stations indicating the presence of unfavorable winds in excess of 55 mph (48 knots) are known as
1. Small Craft Warning
2. Gale Warning
3. Storm Warning
4. Hurricane Warning
Because cyclonic winds in the Northern Hemisphere circulate in a counterclockwise direction, as you move in the same direction as the storm, winds in the left semicircle are known as the
1. dangerous semicircle
2. navigable semicircle
3. safety semicircle
4. semicircle of doom
The strongest hurricane ever recorded in the Western Hemisphere was
1. Hurricane Andrew
2. Hurricane Camille
3. Hurricane Gilbert
4. Hurricane Isabel
In 1900, a deadly hurricane killing 6,000 people hit
1. Galveston, Texas
2. Biloxi, Mississippi
3. Atlantic City, New Jersey
4. Key West, Florida
In probably the greatest natural catastrophe of history, a 1737 typhoon killed 300,000 people in
1. the Bay of Campeche
2. the Bay of Bengal
3. the Bay of Cadiz
4. the Hudson Bay
In the southwestern part of the North Pacific, most tropical cyclones are born between
1. Okinawa and Japan
2. Taiwan and Okinawa
3. The Marshall Islands and the Philippines
4. Singapore and Taiwan
A Gulf Coast hurricane often will dissipate in the
1. Mississippi Valley
2. Missouri Valley
3. Shenandoah Valley
4. Tennessee Valley
An East Coast hurricane will usually cause tidal flooding from
1. Louisiana to Florida
2. Texas to Mississippi
3. Georgia to Virginia
4. Maryland to Massachusetts
A typical hurricane that originates in the doldrums and follows a northeastward track from the Greater Antilles will spread destruction
1. along the Yucatan Peninsula.
2. along the southern Caribbean.
3. throughout the Gulf of Mexico.
4. along the eastern seaboard of the United States.
Hurricanes occur most frequently in the months of
1. May and November
2. September and October
3. June and December
4. July and January
The National Weather Service receives weather data from how many substations?
1. 5000
2. 6000
3. 12000
4. 15000
Each of the services must maintain their own weather agency. For the Navy, this is the mission of the
1. Department of Defense Meteorological Command
2. Department of Navy Meteorological Command
3. Naval Oceanography and Space Command
4. Naval Meteorological and Oceanography Command
What type of forecasts are prepared for air operations?
1. Route, and departing forecasts
2. Optimum Track Ship Route, and flight forecasts
3. Flight, and terminal forecasts
4. Route, flight and terminal forecasts
The National Aviation Weather Center is located in
1. Miami Florida.
2. Asheville North Carolina.
3. Kansas City Missouri.
4. Suitland Maryland.
The National Weather Service is in the Department of
1. Defense.
2. Interior.
3. Commerce.
4. State.
The U.S. Navy rating which specifically concerns itself with interpreting weather conditions for command use is the
1. aerographer's mate.
2. oceanographer.
3. quartermaster.
4. radar operations specialist.
What weather reports are prepared by major units afloat and ashore?
1. Flight forecasts
2. Area forecasts
3. Terminal forecasts
4. Route forecasts
What aviation weather forecasts give conditions for landings and takeoffs at fields enroute?
1. Terminal
2. Flight
3. Route
4. Fog
Where are geosynchronous weather satellites located?
1. Over the Northern Hemisphere
2. Over the equator
3. Over the poles
4. Over Africa
What weather warnings are included in scheduled broadcasts to both the fleet and the merchant marine?
1. Storm warning reports
2. Terminal forecast reports
3. Flight forecast reports.
4. Route, Flight, and Terminal reports
What types of reports include a brief summary of pressure situation fronts, severe weather, fog, etc.?
1. Local Forecasts
2. Flight Forecasts
3. Terminal Forecasts
4. Warning Summaries
Local weather is predicted up to a _______ in advance?
1. two months
2. four months
3. three months
4. one month
Which weather agency provides weather information to newspapers, radio, and television stations?
1. The Navy Weather Service
2. The National Severe Storms Forecast Center
3. The National Weather Service
4. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
The newest satellites are equipped with radiometers and orbit at heights of 900 miles circling the Earth every
1. 15 minutes.
2. 30 minutes.
3. 115 minutes.
4. 130 minutes.
Early weather satellites began in 1960 with the
1. Explorer 1.
2. Hubble Space Telescope.
3. Tiros Satellite.
4. Transit Satellites.
Long -range forecasting is concerned with an overall of the climate, and with predictions for _______ or more years in the future.
1. two
2. one
3. four
4. three
The Naval Oceanographic Command Center's (NOCC) significant input to their weather predictions comes from
1. correlative Sea Disturbance Scales.
2. weather reports submitted by individual ships at sea.
3. Octimum Track Ship routing Scales.
4. Observed Synoptic Track Routes.
The National Weather Service's day-to-day activity is geared to the service of aviation through the system known as the
1. Navy Weather Service.
2. National Meteorological Service Center.
3. The National Severe Storms Forecast Center.
4. Aviation Weather Center.
What aviation weather reports pertain to weather conditions on successive stages of a flight?
1. Storm warnings
2. Flight forecasts
3. Terminal forecasts
4. Local forecasts
For weather conditions along a specific route, aviators usually refer to
1. precipitation reports.
2. local forecasts.
3. route forecasts.
4. terminal forecasts.
Weather Maps are distributed by the National Weather Service
1. daily.
2. weekly.
3. monthly.
4. bi-monthly.
Navy weather units are maintained with all major
1. aviation units.
2. fleet flagships.
3. combatant and auxiliary vessels.
4. All of the above.
Weather maps are printed and distributed each week by whom?
1. U.S Naval Meteorological and Oceanographic Centers (NMOCs)
2. Newspapers
3. Defense Mapping Agency
4. National Weather Service
Geosynchronous satellites, hovering ____________ miles at a fixed location above the equator, photograph an entire hemisphere every half an hour.
1. 900
2. 9000
3. 22300
4. 2300
___________________ are the newest forecasting tools available to the meteorologist.
1. Weather satellites
2. Weather ships
3. Celsius thermometers
4. Balloons
Which of the following is NOT a location of one of the six U.S. Naval Meteorological and Oceanographic Centers (NMOCs)?
1. Norfolk, Virginia
2. San Diego, California
3. Pearl Harbor, Hawaii
4. Newport, Rhode Island
What is the normal prediction period for local weather forecasts?
1. 24 hours
2. 36 hours
3. 48 hours
4. 60 hours
Astronomy is the study of _____________.
1. the atom
2. the universe
3. the solar system
4. the zodiac
Astronomers and other scientists that speculate on the nature of the universe and its origin are called:
1. Cosmetologists
2. Astrologers
3. Biographers
4. Cosmologists
Most modern-day scientists accept the "Big Bang" theory for the origin of the universe. Another name for the "Big Bang" theory is:
1. expanding-universe theory
2. contracting-universe theory
3. constricting-universe theory
4. growing-universe theory
The "Big Bang" theory was first proposed in ________ by the Belgian astronomer Georges Lemaitre.
1. 1503
2. 1689
3. 1881
4. 1927
Scientists believe that what is now our solar system began about 4.5 billion years ago as a large cloud of _________________ from the Big Bang.
1. metal and liquid
2. water and dirt
3. gas and dust
4. light and wind
According to the "Big Bang" theory, when our solar system was forming the thermonuclear ____________ at the core of the proto-Sun released large amounts of energy and caused the proto-Sun to shine.
1. Fission
2. Isotopes
3. Fusion
4. Bomb
According to the "Big Bang" theory, creation began about _______ billion years ago when a huge explosion sent dust and gas hurtling through space in all directions.
1. 13
2. 31
3. 131
4. 113
The amount of light a telescope can collect depends entirely on :
1. the number of lenses
2. the precision of the lens or mirror
3. the shape of the lens or mirror
4. the area of it's main lens or mirror
The true beginning of the space age started with the launch of Sputnik I in :
1. 1951
2. 1957
3. 1962
4. 1969
The Hubble Space Telescope was placed in orbit around the Earth in:
1. 1975
2. 1980
3. 1985
4. 1990
Today, the telescope and its fine cameras are usually operated by
1. Hand
2. Cranks
3. Pulleys and levers
4. Computers
Why are astronomical photographs taken on sensitive photographic glass plates instead of on film?
1. Glass plates do not curl and can be stored and handled with greater ease.
2. Glass plates are less expensive than film.
3. Film is less likely to take accurate pictures.
4. Over time, pictures taken on film tend to fade and are no longer useful.
The largest refracting telescope in the world is located at the
1. Mauna Kea Observatory in Hawaii
2. U.S. Naval Observatory at Flagstaff, Arizona
3. Yerkes Observatory at Williams Bay
4. European Southern Observatory in Chile
Where is the world's largest conventional reflecting telescope, with a single primary mirror, located?
1. Mauna Kea Observatory in Hawaii
2. U.S. Naval Observatory at Flagstaff, Arizona
3. Yerkes Observatory at Williams Bay
4. European Southern Observatory in Chile
The mirrors on the Hale telescope are polished to ___________, the tolerance for light waves.
1. one-thousandth of a centimeter
2. one-millionth of an inch
3. one-billionth of a meter
4. one-billionth of an inch
Where is the world's largest steerable radiotelescope located?
1. Flagstaff, Arizona
2. Chesire, England
3. Green Bank, West Virginia
4. Arecibo, Puerto Rico
These objects look no larger than a single star, but they emit hundreds of times more energy than most galaxies.
1. Quasars
2. Sun-spots
3. Supernovae explosions
4. Pulsars
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) began using radiotelescopes in a systematic search for any possible radio signals being broadcast in our galaxy. In what year was funding for this program cut?
1. 1993
2. 1992
3. 1994
4. 1991
This project's goal is to scan the 1,000 closest stars for all frequencies in the microwave region between 1.0 and 3.0 GHz, that might indicate intelligent origin. What is the name of this project?
1. Project Santa Fe
2. Project Hollywood
3. Project Phoenix
4. Project Alamo
Sir Isaac Newton is credited with the development of the
1. observatory.
2. reflecting telescope.
3. spectrograph.
4. radio telescope.
What early spacecraft fitted with a device designed to map the earth's magnetic field by measuring the energies of incoming charged particles at different levels of the outer atmosphere discovered the Van Allen radiation belts?
1. Sputnik I
2. Explorer I
3. Viking I
4. Mariner I
What device is used to magnify the images of distant objects?
1. Telescope
2. Spectrograph
3. Magnifier
4. Convex mirror
What spacecraft crossed the orbit of Pluto, the outermost known planet, in 1986, becoming the first man made object to escape the solar system?
1. Sputnik I
2. Explorer I
3. Pioneer 10
4. Pioneer 11
What spacecraft helped to rewrite the book on solar physics and our understanding of how and why the sun functions, and the effects the sun has on terrestrial weather and communication?
1. Explorer I
2. Mariner I
3. Skylab
4. Pioneer 11
What spacecraft launching represents the true beginnings of the Space Age in October 1957?
1. Sputnik I
2. Mariner I
3. Explorer I
4. Skylab
Which type of telescope uses two single convex lenses called the objective lens at the end of the telescope, and the eyepiece lens which magnifies images?
1. Radio
2. Stroboscope
3. Refracting
4. Reflecting
In what country is the largest refracting telescope located?
1. Russia
2. United States
3. Spain
4. Germany
In 1989 the __________ spacecraft fitted with an advanced radar imaging device was launched to produce a detailed map of the surface of Venus?
1. Magellan
2. Pioneer 10
3. Pioneer 11
4. Mariner
What kind of telescope has a convex secondary mirror, causing the light to focus behind the telescope's objective mirror?
1. Newtonian reflector
2. Cassegrain reflector
3. Secondary reflectors
4. Newtonian refractors
Thermonuclear fusion occurs when
1. radioactive elements within the cold earth gradually began to give off heat.
2. proto-planets are formed by the accumulation of cold dusts from the region of space near the sun.
3. hydrogen atoms fuse to form helium.
4. forces in a spinning cloud flatten it into the shape of an enormous disk.
What was the name of the spacecraft that arrived at Jupiter in December 1995 and began a mission to take detailed observations of the planet and its moons?
1. Pioneer 11
2. Galileo
3. Explorer I
4. Skylab
Although relatively new, _________ astronomy is playing a great part in the study of the universe.
1. Radiotelescope
2. Spectrum
3. Balloon
4. Gondolas
The radio telescope can direct powerful radio beams at a celestial object, and then receive them when they reflect toward earth. Radiotelescopes equipped with such transmitters are often called
1. ultra-reflecting telescopes.
2. refracting telescopes.
3. ultra-radio telescopes.
4. radar telescopes.
Mariner reconnaissance spacecraft conducted orbital surveys of
1. Mars in the late 1960s, and Venus in the early 1970s.
2. Martian surface in the mid-1970s, sending back photos of the Martian terrain and conducting experiments to try to determine whether microbial life forms exist in the soil.
3. Halley's Comet in 1986, confirming observations that the head of the comet is composed primarily of dirty ice.
4. sun, the other planets, their satellites, and the space between them in the 1970s.
Which of the following is the most widely accepted scientific theory of the origin of the universe?
1. The galactic theory.
2. The expanding universe theory.
3. The "big bang" theory.
4. The atomic fusion theory.
Which of the following statements best describe the main mission of the Galileo spacecraft launched in 1989?
1. Penetrate the Venusian atmosphere and radio back data on temperatures and pressures.
2. Make a soft landing on the Martian surface.
3. See if there was a tenth planet beyond Pluto.
4. Investigate the atmosphere and composition of Jupiter.
Which of the following statements best describes the spectrograph?
1. Attaches directly to a telescope, breaks up incoming light into its component wavelengths or colors to be photographed.
2. Produces the rainbow of colors of a prism.
3. Records the color bands of the spectrum.
4. Determines the amount of hydrogen, helium, and the other elements that may be present.
Which of the following caused renewed interest in the possibilities of life on Mars in the 1990s?
1. The author H.G. Wells' book War of the Worlds.
2. The astronomer Carl Sagan's TV series Cosmos.
3. The discovery of possible fossilized evidence of microbial life in a Martian meteorite.
4. Analysis of the Viking lander photographs taken in 1976.
The SPUTNIK, EXPLORER, and the MARINER series were names given to the first artificial
1. planetoids.
2. satellites.
3. meteorites.
4. pulsars.
Many additional missions to the planet __________ is planned over the next decade, perhaps culminating in a manned mission sometime before the year 2020.
1. Mars
2. Juno
3. Pluto
4. Jupiter
In 1986, a pair of Soviet reconnaissance probes conducted a close fly-by of
1. the Martian surface
2. Jupiter
3. Halley's Comet during its swing through the solar system
4. Venus
A building designed and equipped with astronomical and meteorological instruments, used to view natural phenomena, is known as a(n)
1. astrognosy.
2. observatory.
3. planetoidal.
4. lunar station.
A _______ records the color bands in the spectrum and when analyzed, it tells scientists which elements produced light.
1. Radiotelescope
2. Cassegrain reflector
3. Photopolarimeter
4. Spectrogram
What element is believed to account for ninety-three percent of all atoms in the universe?
1. Helium
2. Carbon
3. Oxygen
4. Hydrogen
What mission was the last U.S. lunar landing in 1972?
1. Apollo 17
2. Pioneer 11
3. Mariner 1
4. Apollo 13
The moon's diameter is roughly ________ percent of that of the earth's.
1. 40
2. 30
3. 10
4. 15
The lack of gradual daily temperature changes and the absence of sound on the moon are a result of
1. Proximity to the sun
2. Moon's rotation
3. Size
4. No atmosphere
Erosion on the moon is due to
1. Wind
2. Rain
3. A & B
4. Breccia and atomic particles from the Sun
Super-heavy magnetic concentrations beneath the lunar surface are called
1. Maria
2. Mascons
3. Tektites
4. Poles
Some smooth plains on the moon's surface are old craters filled with lava or volcanic ash are know as
1. Seas
2. Mascons
3. Lake beds
4. Maria
The backside of the moon was photographed during
1. Pioneer expeditions
2. Apollo expeditions
3. International space station
4. Mercury capsules
Temperatures on the moon range from:
1. 750 F to -750 F
2. 243 F to -261 F
3. 2430 C to -2610 C
4. 0 Kelvin to 100 Kelvin
The moons mountains are
1. Concentrated in the northern hemisphere
2. Considerably lower than those on earth
3. Very smooth due to the constant bombardment from meter dust
4. Concentrated in the southern hemisphere
Moonquakes
1. Cause the moon to vibrate for extended periods
2. Have severe tremors lasting only a few seconds
3. Are non-existent
4. Are a new to this century
Phases of the moon are caused by
1. Light reflected off the earth
2. Relative positions of the sun, earth and moon
3. The moons motion in its orbit
4. Both B & C
The moon passing through the shadow of the earth is called
1. Lunar eclipse
2. Waning
3. Solar eclipse
4. Blackout
The so-called "seas" on the Moon are
1. the mare or maria, which really are areas of water vapor in suspension.
2. lunar spots caused by cooler concentrations of hydrogen suspended in the cosmos.
3. the maria, which actually are plains carved with lava or volcanic ash.
4. actually cosmic dust that has been detected in bands around the Moon by radio astronomy.
A lunar eclipse occurs when the
1. Sun gets between the Earth and the Moon.
2. Moon gets between the Sun and the Earth.
3. Moon passes through the conical shadow of the Earth.
4. Moon is full, only.
On an average the Moon is about how far from the Earth?
1. 149,000 miles away
2. 200,000 miles away
3. 239,000 miles away
4. 350,000 miles away
One cause of erosion on the Moon is from crashing meteorites. These crashing meteorites spray the surface with broken rocks called
1. mascons.
2. tektites.
3. breccia.
4. atomic particles.
The Moon has no atmosphere. Thus there is
1. a gradual daily temperature change from hot to cold.
2. no daily temperature change from hot to cold.
3. no gradual daily temperature change from hot to cold.
4. no daily temperature change at all.
Erosion on the surface of the Moon takes place
1. very rapidly.
2. very slowly.
3. swiftly.
4. fast.
Physical features you can see on the surface of the Moon are
1. oceans, rivers, and plains.
2. volcanoes, rivers, and craters.
3. desserts, oceans, and mountain ranges.
4. craters, mountain ranges, and plains.
The igneous rocks that are on the surface of the Moon were formed by
1. solidification of molten magma.
2. magnesium and crystals.
3. hot platinum.
4. carbon.
Some scientists believe it possible that the Moon
1. has an exterior of hot molten rock.
2. has a cold interior core.
3. has a hot exterior shell.
4. has a deposit of water ice.
The measure of the percentage of light reflected from a surface is called
1. luminescence
2. reflectance
3. photoreflection
4. reflectivity
The most conspicuous crater on the Moon is located in its southern hemisphere. What is this crater's name?
1. The Sea of Tranquillity
2. Copernicus
3. Bailly
4. Tycho
The surface of the Moon is covered by breccia. There is also a layer of dust made up of tiny pieces of glass. What is this glass called?
1. Lithosphere
2. Tektites
3. Mare
4. Mascons
There are infinite numbers of craters that cover the Moon's surface. The largest on the near side is
1. Tycho.
2. Copernicus.
3. Bailly.
4. Cresent.
When the visible moon begins to get smaller after the full moon, the moon is said to
1. wax.
2. phase.
3. shrink.
4. wane.
What is a lunar "mare"(plural Maria)?
1. The Moon's outer crust.
2. The plains on the Moon.
3. The Moon's mountain ranges.
4. Cracks in the Moon's surface.
The Moon is actually a poor reflector of light, with what percentage of light reflected?
1. less than 15 percent
2. 16-25 percent
3. 26-35 percent
4. greater than 35 percent
Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
1. It is conceivable that it may someday be possible to mine the Moon's mineral wealth.
2. Astronomical laboratories and observatories on the Moon would be able to probe greater distances into space than would astronomical laboratories and observatories on the Earth.
3. The mapping and study of our own Earth and its atmosphere from Moon and space satellites would lend more accuracy to our current geographical and meteorological information.
4. Modern maps of the Earth were more complete than maps of the lunar surface prior to the Apollo expeditions.
A day or so after a new moon, the Moon is seen as a thin bow-shaped figure. What is this figure called?
1. Gibbous.
2. Eclipsed
3. Waxing
4. Cresent
At new moon what is the alignment of the Earth, Moon, and Sun?
1. The Sun is between the Earth and the Moon
2. The Earth is between the Sun and the Moon
3. The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun
4. None of the above is correct
Between its first and last quarters when more than half of the Moon is visible, it is called (a)
1. crescent.
2. gibbous.
3. new moon.
4. full moon.
The Apollo 11 astronauts set up a moonquake detector at
1. the Sea of Tranquility.
2. Copernicus.
3. Bailly.
4. Tycho.
How many miles (in diameter) is the largest crater on the near side of the Moon?
1. 600
2. 387
3. 210
4. 183
The average distance from the Sun to the Earth, about 93 million miles, is called one
1. solar distance unit.
2. parsec.
3. astronomical unit.
4. light year.
The average distance in miles the sun is from the earth has been calculated to be nearly
1. 90700000
2. 91500000
3. 93000000
4. 94700000
Electrically charged sunspot gases that escape the Sun's chromosphere and enter the Earth's atmosphere near the magnetic poles cause the
1. Auroras Borealis and Australis.
2. corona of the Sun to be visible.
3. Sun to increase in luminosity.
4. eclipse of the Sun in the polar regions.
Developing ways to capture the Sun's energy is of great importance because
1. nuclear power is the only other source of energy, and it is both dangerous and unreliable.
2. wind and water power, as energy sources are too expensive.
3. nuclear energy is too expensive to use on a regular basis.
4. the Earth will eventually run out of coal and petroleum.
At its core the Sun's temperature is estimated to be about
1. fifteen thousand degrees.
2. fifty thousand degrees.
3. fifteen million degrees.
4. fifty million degrees.
In illustrations, the Earth is shown as the center of a doughnut hole around which various radiation belts circle. At the North and South poles of the Earth there are
1. high-energy protons and electrons.
2. low-energy protons and electrons.
3. both low-energy and high-energy particles.
4. no trapped particles above or below the poles.
The outer Van Allen radiation belts and the stable trapping region contain
1. high-energy protons and electrons.
2. lower-energy particles.
3. high electrons.
4. All of the answers are correct.
There are huge numbers of charged particles that have been trapped by the Earth's magnetic field. The center for two of these are called the
1. Van Allen radiation belts.
2. magnetopause.
3. Starfish ring.
4. stable trapping region.
The outermost layer of the Earth’s atmosphere is called the __________.
1. Photosphere
2. Chromosphere
3. Exosphere
4. Corona
Which of the following sources of power cannot be traced to the Sun's energy?
1. Petroleum products
2. Coal
3. Solar heating
4. Lunar tidal energy
An inexhaustible source of power to satisfy the growing needs of all civilized mankind, if it could be economically harnessed, would be
1. nuclear energy.
2. volcanic energy.
3. tidal energy.
4. solar energy.
Most of the world's energy needs are still being met with
1. water power, coal, and petroleum.
2. petroleum, solar power, and coal.
3. nuclear energy, water, and coal.
4. coal, nuclear energy, and petroleum.
How often does the magnetosphere change its shape?
1. Hourly
2. Daily
3. Weekly
4. Monthly
The boundary of the magnetosphere is called the
1. ionosphere.
2. photopause.
3. chromosphere.
4. magnetopause.
Sunspots have been known to last only a few minutes or as long as
1. a year and a half.
2. one-year.
3. a half-year.
4. twenty days.
The Sun's gravitational attraction is 270 times that of Earth; if possible a 100-pound keg of nails would weigh how many pounds on the Sun?
1. 270000
2. 54000
3. 27000
4. 1000
FUSION is
1. freezing of a liquid.
2. boiling of an element.
3. combustion of two or more elements to form a third.
4. vaporization of a liquid.
The average distance the sun is from the earth is known as a (n) _______________and is often used to describe distances in outer space.
1. light year
2. solar distance
3. astronomical unit
4. solar unit
The sun's energy passes through space by the process of
1. Radiation.
2. Time.
3. Fusion.
4. Fusion fields.
Earth receives less than one (1) two? Billionth of the sun's energy. The remainder of the sun's energy
1. Is trapped in the magnetosphere.
2. Is lost in space.
3. Produces hydrogen.
4. Is trapped inside the sun.
There are huge numbers of charged particles that have been trapped by the earth's magnetic field. These particles circle the earth in four doughnut-shaped regions. One region is man-made and three are natural. Which region is the man-made region?
1. Inner Van Allen Belt
2. Outer Van Allen Belt
3. Starfish Ring
4. Stable Trapping Region
Sunspots are visible because
1. as they cool they appear lighter than the hotter environment behind them.
2. as they cool they appear darker than the hotter environment behind them.
3. as they surface they take on a bright hot/white color.
4. as they surface their temperatures rise to one million degrees and they take on a bright orange appearance.
Which is the outermost layer of the sun's atmosphere?
1. Core
2. Photosphere
3. Chromosphere
4. Corona
Electrically charged sunspot gases which escape the sun's chromosphere and enter the earth's atmosphere near the magnetic north pole cause the
1. Auroras Borealis
2. corona of the sun to be visible.
3. sun to increase in luminosity.
4. eclipse of the sun in the polar regions.
The closest star to the earth is
1. the sun.
2. Alpha Centauri.
3. the andromeda galaxy.
4. Polaris, the North Star.
What was the name of the space probe that conducted the most advanced exploration of the sun to date?
1. Galileo.
2. Explorer II.
3. Discovery.
4. Ulysses.
What is it called when hydrogen gases are transformed into helium?
1. Solar fusion
2. Fission process
3. Nuclear fusion
4. Hydrogen process
A total eclipse of the sun is called a
1. lunar eclipse.
2. solar eclipse.
3. magnetic eclipse.
4. sunspot eclipse.
The whirling fountains of hot gases that come out of the sun’s interior are called?
1. Solar spots
2. Prominences
3. Solar winds
4. Sunspots
What is the instrument called that is used to view the sun during an eclipse?
1. Magnetagraph
2. Coronagraph
3. Photograph
4. Corona
The lowest layer of the sun's atmosphere is called the
1. photosphere.
2. magnetosphere.
3. chromosphere.
4. coronasphere.
The light giving "surface" of the sun is called the
1. photosphere.
2. magnetosphere.
3. coronagraph.
4. chromosphere.
What planet is called the "red" planet?
1. Saturn
2. Mars
3. Mercury
4. Venus
About three-fourths of which planet's surface is covered by ironoxide dust?
1. Mars
2. Saturn
3. Pluto
4. Jupiter
The following planets are knows as the twin planets.
1. Neptune and Mars
2. Uranus and Neptune
3. Earth and Mars
4. Pluto and Mercury
Which planet has a mysterious "Great Red Spot" in its southern hemisphere?
1. Earth
2. Uranus
3. Jupiter
4. Saturn
Which planet was discovered by astronomers trying to learn why Uranus did not always travel its regular orbit?
1. Jupiter
2. Neptune
3. Saturn
4. Pluto
The "plane of the ecliptic" refers to the orbit of which planet?
1. Earth
2. Venus
3. Mercury
4. Pluto
Which planet has moons upon which sulfur dioxide vulcanism and water ice were discovered by the Voyager spacecraft in 1979?
1. Mercury
2. Jupiter
3. Pluto
4. Earth
Which planet is the largest in our solar system?
1. Saturn
2. Jupiter
3. Uranus
4. Neptune
Which planet is the fourth planet from the Sun?
1. Earth
2. Mars
3. Venus
4. Mercury
How many years does it take Pluto to travel around the Sun?
1. 29
2. 84
3. 165
4. 248
The exploration of this planet by the Pioneer and Voyager spacecraft is considered to be among the greatest scientific achievements of the twentieth century.
1. Neptune
2. Jupiter
3. Saturn
4. Uranus
Which planet has been described as a kind of solar system in miniature, displaying many of the fundamental processes connected with the formation and early evolution of our planetary system?
1. Neptune
2. Jupiter
3. Saturn
4. Uranus
Which planet has rings that extend outward from 7,000 to 171,000 miles?
1. Jupiter
2. Mars
3. Neptune
4. Saturn
Which planet usually outshines everything in the night sky except the Moon and Venus?
1. Jupiter
2. Mercury
3. Saturn
4. Pluto
The term usually used to refer to the apparent backward motion of a planet in its orbit (as seen on earth) is
1. Ephemeris.
2. Retrograde.
3. Heliocentric path.
4. Almanac
Which is the smallest of the inner planets in our solar system?
1. Pluto
2. Venus
3. Mercury
4. Jupiter
Which planet was selected as the name for the "newest" planet because it was the Roman god of darkness and the underworld?
1. Mars
2. Saturn
3. Pluto
4. Jupiter
Which two planets do not have satellite moons?
1. Mercury and Venus
2. Mercury and Pluto
3. Venus and Pluto
4. Jupiter and Saturn
Which planet has the shortest period of revolution around the Sun?
1. Earth
2. Venus
3. Mercury
4. Pluto
Which planet spins clockwise opposite its orbit around the Sun?
1. Venus
2. Earth
3. Mercury
4. Mars
The planet which can be seen as a bright early evening or morning star because of its orbit between the Earth and the Sun is
1. Venus.
2. Mercury.
3. Mars.
4. Jupiter.
What four planets are referred to as the big four?
1. Pluto, Venus, Jupiter, and Mars
2. Mars, Saturn, Venus, and Jupiter
3. Mercury, Mars, Saturn, and Pluto
4. Saturn, Jupiter, Mars, and Uranus
The usual reference to which the orbital planes of the planets are referred is the plane of the Earth's orbit about the Sun, called the
1. orbital ellipse.
2. plane of the ecliptic.
3. orbital period.
4. heliocentric path.
How many known planets are in our solar system?
1. Eight
2. Ten
3. Nine
4. Seven
Light travels at a speed of approximately ____________ miles per second.
1. 200000
2. 186000
3. 316000
4. 40000
Planets orbit the sun in a (n) _______ path.
1. Orbital
2. Elliptical
3. Arched
4. Linear
The planet closest to the sun.
1. Mercury
2. Earth
3. Saturn
4. Venus
A chart that serves as a timetable for movement and location of planets is known as a (n) ___________.
1. Almanac
2. Star chart
3. Atlas
4. Celestial map
The gravitational force of the ________ keeps planets in their orbits.
1. Sun
2. Moon
3. Earth
4. Stars
All planets have moons with exception of
1. Earth and Mars
2. Mars and Saturn
3. Mercury and Venus
4. Mercury and Mars
Which planet can only be seen in the western sky just after sunset or in the eastern sky just prior to sunrise.
1. Jupiter
2. Mars
3. Venus
4. Saturn
The time it takes a planet to go around the Sun is
1. Orbital period
2. Retrograde Motion
3. Eliptical movement
4. Axis rotation
What were the names of the two Martian rovers that landed on Mars in January of 2004?
1. Spirit and Pathfinder
2. Pathfinder and Opportunity
3. Spirit and Opportunity
4. Opportunity and Sojourner
Asteroids are generally found between these planets.
1. Earth and Mars
2. Mars and Mercury
3. Mars and Jupiter
4. Saturn and Pluto
The most plentiful bodies in our solar system are:
1. Asteroids
2. Comets
3. Stars
4. Planets
Chunks of rock or metal orbiting in outer space are known as:
1. Comets
2. Asteroids
3. Meteoroids
4. Planets
One of the most famous of all Comets is __________ and generally appears every 75 years.
1. Haley's
2. Tommy's
3. Bobby's
4. Arthurs's
The fiery death of a meteor is generally known as a _____________.
1. Shooting star
2. Fireball
3. Black hole
4. Elliptical star
As a comet is heated more, dust and ionized gas particles are pushed away from the head by the pressure of the Sun's radiation. They move away and form a
1. siderites effect.
2. asteroid tail.
3. luminous tail.
4. tektite end.
Minor planets revolving around the Sun, mostly between Mars and Jupiter, are called
1. comets.
2. an asteroid belt.
3. tektites.
4. asteroids.
About how many years does it take Halley's Comet to complete its orbital cycle?
1. 10
2. 50
3. 75
4. 150
Comets are believed to be composed of
1. hydrogen and oxygen.
2. frozen gases and dust.
3. nitrogen and sodium.
4. frozen dust and carbon.
The head of a comet usually containing a nucleus is known as a
1. tail.
2. coma.
3. tektite.
4. aerolite.
Meteoroids that enter the Earth's atmosphere are called
1. tektites.
2. aerolites.
3. stellar fragments.
4. meteors.
Sometimes the Earth crosses a part of a former comet path. The tiny particles remaining from the comet then collide with our atmosphere, producing a
1. asteroid shower.
2. gaseous tail.
3. meteor shower.
4. meteoroid shower.
What are the stony meteorites called?
1. siderites
2. tektites
3. aerolites
4. meteorites
A meteor that strikes Earth's surface is called a
1. tektite.
2. meteorite.
3. meteoroid.
4. meteor.
Meteorites that are made up of iron and nickel are called
1. tektites.
2. aerolites.
3. siderites.
4. comas.
In 1894 Admiral Robert Peary found the largest meteorite ever found in the western hemisphere. In what country was it discovered?
1. Candor
2. Greenland
3. America
4. France
A heavenly body, sometimes visible without a telescope, having large elliptical orbit around the Sun, is known as a
1. comet.
2. asteroid.
3. stellar fragment.
4. meteor.
Meteorites that usually weigh between an ounce and a pound are called
1. asteroids.
2. comets.
3. tektites.
4. aerolites
What heavenly bodies in our solar system are the most plentiful and number more than one hundred billion?
1. Asteroids
2. Comets
3. Aerolites
4. Tektites
What heavenly bodies are invisible because of their relatively small size?
1. Asteroids
2. Comets
3. Meteoroids
4. Aerolites
Astronomers believe that meteoroids originated from the fragments of a shattered planet within the
1. meteor belts.
2. sun zones.
3. auroias zones.
4. asteroid belt.
What do we call an extremely large and bright meteor that will probably end up as a large meteorite, landing somewhere on Earth?
1. Siderites
2. Asteroid belt
3. Fireball
4. Aerolites
The area in which asteroids orbit the Sun is called the
1. gaseous tail.
2. meteorite belt.
3. asteroid belt.
4. asteroid tail.
The nature of a star can be best determined from its ____________.
1. Spectrum
2. Magnitude
3. Brightness
4. Aptitude
A light year is the distance light travels in a _________.
1. Month
2. Day
3. Year
4. Week
The ________________ of a star is its brightness as it appears to an observer on Earth.
1. Apparent magnitude
2. Absolute magnitude
3. Apparent brightness
4. Absolute brightness
The following heavenly body is classified as a star.
1. The moon
2. Earth
3. Pluto
4. The Sun
The galaxy in which Earth and our known planets exist is _____________.
1. The Milky Way
2. Binary constellation
3. Globular cluster
4. The big dipper
The Milky Way takes on the shape of a _______.
1. Disc
2. Kite
3. Golf ball
4. Football
A concentration of mass so great and dense that no light can escape its gravitational pull is known as a
1. Spiral galaxy
2. Nova
3. Nebula
4. Black hole
Stars can best be classified as.
1. Distant moons in space
2. Distant planets in space
3. Distant suns in space
4. Distant stars in space
Most of the bright stars are we see at night are
1. Giant stars
2. Supergiant stars
3. Nova stars
4. White dwarfs
After the Sun, what star is closest to the Earth?
1. Rigel
2. Antares
3. Alpha Centauri
4. The Sun
A light-year is defined as the
1. amount of light recorded by a radio telescope.
2. time it takes light to travel to Earth from a celestial body.
3. wavelength of the rays of light and energy from space.
4. cosmic distance that light travels in a year.
Stars that are loosely grouped stars, often found in areas where there are glowing masses of dust and gas are called?
1. Star clouds
2. Open clusters
3. Moving clusters
4. Globular clusters
What term refers to the brightness of a star as compared to the brightness of the Sun?
1. Parsecs.
2. Parallax.
3. Luminosity.
4. One (1) magnitude.
Stars are classified according to their temperature and
1. magnitude.
2. life span.
3. color.
4. size.
On the spectrum-luminosity diagram, 98 percent of all stars fall into what group?
1. Supergiants
2. Giants
3. Main sequence
4. White dwarfs
A nebulae that is visible only because it is silhouetted against the stars behind it is known as a
1. bright nebulae.
2. dark nebulae.
3. planetary nebulae.
4. galactic nebulae.
A nebulae found close to bright stars that illuminate it is known as a
1. bright nebulae.
2. dark nebulae.
3. planetary nebulae.
4. galactic nebulae.
A temporary star with a large gas cloud surrounding it as the result of a stellar explosion is known as a
1. bright nebulae.
2. dark nebulae.
3. planetary nebulae.
4. galactic nebulae.
The Milky Way is a/an
1. ellipsoidal galaxy.
2. spherical galaxy.
3. irregular galaxy.
4. spiral galaxy.
Grouping of stars which historically have been visualized as manifestations of mythological characters and animals are the
1. supernova.
2. constellations.
3. galaxies.
4. planets.
What characteristic of cepheid variable stars is used to estimate their distance from Earth?
1. Variation in color.
2. Variation of magnitude.
3. Variation of temperature.
4. Their size.
Certain bright stars expand and contract with a definite rhythm; thus they are called
1. clusters.
2. dwarfs.
3. main sequences.
4. cepheid variables.
In brightness and temperature our Sun is classified as
1. small.
2. average.
3. large.
4. huge.
What is another name for the Cepheid variable?
1. Cepheid star
2. Galaxy of stars
3. Shape of the star
4. Pulsating star
What are the leading indicators used to determine what kind of star will be "born?"
1. Amount of gases and cosmic dust which it gathers in formative stages.
2. The position and temperature of other nearby stars in the universe.
3. Gravitational attraction of nearby stars.
4. Thermonuclear fusion products drawn from other stars.
Pairs of stars are called binaries or double stars. Larger groups of stars that are close together are referred to as
1. star groups.
2. constellations.
3. star lights.
4. star clusters.
When a star contracts, its internal pressure and temperature
1. increase.
2. decrease.
3. dwindle.
4. are unmeasuable
Galaxies which have clearly defined, symmetrical shapes, ranging from spheres to ellipsoids are called
1. ellipsoidal galaxies.
2. absolute galaxies.
3. spiral galaxies.
4. irregular galaxies.
A star's brightness as seen from a standard distance called parsec or 32.6 light-years is that star's
1. apparent magnitude.
2. absolute magnitude.
3. spectrum-luminosity rating.
4. main sequence.
"A body in motion tends to remain in motion in a straight line unless acted on by outside forces" is known as ______________.
1. Murphy's Law
2. Newton's first law
3. Galileo's first law
4. Aristotle's second law
Newton's second law of motion is expressed mathematically as __________
1. F=ma
2. A=fm
3. M=fa
4. F=m/a
____________ is the change in velocity per unit of time.
1. Speed
2. Acceleration
3. Time
4. Distance
_____________ is the quantity of material contained in a body.
1. Volume
2. Friction
3. Mass
4. Friction
The method that is used by scientists in their investigations.
1. Pure method
2. Scientific method
3. Random theory
4. Hypothesis
___________ occurs when a force acts through a distance.
1. Energy
2. Friction
3. Work
4. Motion
The speed of missiles and other high speed aircraft is often expressed in terms of __________.
1. Mph
2. Velocity
3. Mach number
4. Speed
The downward force applied against a body is known as _____________.
1. Friction
2. Energy
3. Gravity
4. Aerodynamic force
One force that all moving earthbound objects are subject to is ______________.
1. Gravity
2. Friction
3. Aerodynamic force
4. Power
The English unit for measuring work is known as _____________.
1. Foot/pounds
2. Volts
3. Horsepower
4. Joules
A body traveling at Mach 1 is traveling how fast.
1. Speed of sound
2. Speed of light
3. 6000 MPH
4. 3000 MPH
___________ is the rate of motion in a given direction.
1. Speed
2. Distance
3. Velocity
4. Friction
Light travels at the rate of ____________.
1. 300,000 MPH
2. 186,000 MPS
3. 186 MPH
4. 186 MPS
One of the leading early scientists that is responsible for formulating a number of laws dealing with motion ___________________.
1. Newton
2. Archimedes
3. Plato
4. Aristotle
A _______________ is a reasoned explanation for a scientific event.
1. Scientific principal
2. Hypotheses
3. Research element
4. Theory
_______________ is the search for relationships that can be used to explain and predict how and why people, animals and things behave as they do.
1. Science
2. Research
3. Theories
4. Scientific principals
The path of a body in flight is determined by>
1. Newton's law of motion
2. Einstein's law of motion
3. Newton's law of relativity
4. Einstein's law of relativity
The total energy in any isolated system remains constant is known as the______________ principal.
1. Bernoulli
2. Einstein
3. Newton
4. Aristotle
Physical Science concerns all of the following except:
1. Matter
2. Energy
3. Forces
4. Philosophy
The study of forces, matter, and energy in various forms interact is
1. Physics
2. Chemistry
3. Geology
4. Zoology
Chemistry is the study of
1. atmospheric behavior.
2. matter and how it changes under various conditions.
3. the interaction between living organisms and their environment.
4. ancient cultures.
Those who engage in the search for scientific truth are called:
1. Philosophers
2. Mathematicians
3. Scientists
4. Philanthropists
Newton's _____ law of motion states that the acceleration of a body is directly proportional to force acting upon it.
1. first
2. second
3. third
4. fourth
The law of inertia is better known as:
1. Newton's first law of motion.
2. Newton's second law of motion.
3. Newton's third law of motion.
4. Newton's theory of relativity.
"For every action there is an equal but opposite reaction" is best related to
1. Newton's first law of motion.
2. Newton's second law of motion.
3. Newton's third law of motion.
4. Newton's theory of relativity.
Power or energy exerted against a body in a given direction is known as:
1. acceleration.
2. force.
3. mass.
4. none of the above.
The rate of motion in a given direction is
1. acceleration.
2. force.
3. velocity.
4. Newtonian motion.
What are the units of force in the English system?
1. Newtons.
2. Joules.
3. Pounds.
4. Both A and C.
All of the following are aerodynamic forces on bodies in flight except:
1. Thrust.
2. Lift.
3. Drag.
4. Magnitude.
All of the following are steps in the scientific method except:
1. Make observations
2. Conducting experiments
3. Forming questions
4. Maintaining theories
A _____ is a reasoned explanation of observed events, while a _____ is a statement that describes and predicts the future outcome of these events.
1. theory, law
2. law, theory
3. hypotheses, method
4. explanation, theory
Bodies moving through fluids sach as water or air generate _____.
1. gravity.
2. static electricity.
3. fluid friction.
4. natural friction.
Why does a metal ship float?
1. Law of inertia.
2. Law of Relativity.
3. Absolute force.
4. Buoyant force.
The amount of the force of gravity on a body at a given location is known as __________-
1. Mass
2. Volume
3. Weight
4. Friction
The science that deals with the motion of bodies moving through air and other gases is known as ___________.
1. Flight science
2. Hydraulics
3. Aerology
4. Aerodynamics
The rate at which work is done or energy is gained or expended is known as _____________.
1. Mass
2. Power
3. Volume
4. Acceleration
A freely falling body accelerates at the rate of.
1. 32 feet per second/per second
2. 64 feet per second/per second
3. 32 feet per second
4. 64 feet per second
Missiles and aircraft use _______________ to maintain their flight paths.
1. Aerodynamic forces
2. Gravity forces
3. Drag forces
4. Energy forces
One of the major results of friction is:
1. Heat
2. Light
3. Evaporation
4. Loss of mass
In aerodynamics, acceleration is often measured in terms of the standard acceleration of gravity and is commonly referred to as:
1. G forces
2. F forces
3. G men
4. F men
What are the units of force in the Metric system?
1. Newtons
2. Joules
3. Pounds
4. Both A and C
The amount of energy or power in a sound wave in any given location is called the________________
1. Doppler Effect.
2. Salinity.
3. Wattage.
4. Sound intensity.
A human's ability to hear a sound depends on________________
1. sound intensity.
2. frequency of the sound.
3. motion.
4. Both A and B.
Sound waves can be bent or _________as they pass from one medium to another, if the densities are not too dissimilar.
1. diffracted
2. echoed
3. refracted
4. detected
Relative intensity or noise level, is calculated in units called _____________
1. Ohms.
2. Decibels.
3. Echoes.
4. Reflection.
The speed of sound waves traveling through the water is affected by all of the following except:
1. Clarity
2. Salinity
3. Temperature
4. Pressure
_______is by far the most important of the factors affecting the speed of sound in seawater.
1. Clarity
2. Salinity
3. Temperature
4. Pressure
Beyond the eardrum is the __________________
1. inner ear.
2. outer ear.
3. middle ear.
4. ear canal.
What part of the ear has a liquid filled structure called cochlea?
1. Ear canal
2. Middle ear
3. Inner ear
4. Back ear drum
What principal means is used to track submarines at sea?
1. Radar
2. Sonar
3. Ultrasound
4. None of the above
What sonars do not transmit sound?
1. Active
2. Passive
3. Ultrasound
4. Plotting
Most ships have a ___________ on board that determine water depth under the haul.
1. Compass
2. Hydrophone
3. Fathometer
4. Both A and B
___________ are small, expendable floating hydrophone units.
1. Range finders
2. Fathometer
3. Radio sonar buoys
4. Analyzing buoys
A sound above the upper frequency limit of human hearing is called?
1. Doppler shift
2. Ultrasound
3. Sonic region
4. Auditory sound
What sonar equipment can be used by helicopters to detect submerged submarines?
1. Fathometer
2. Dipping Sonar
3. Hull-Mounted
4. Towed Array
What is by far the most important of the factors affecting the speed of sound in seawater?
1. Salinity
2. Passive Sonars
3. Temperature
4. Pressure
The term SONAR stands for.
1. Sound Navigation and Ranging
2. Sound Ranging
3. Sound Navigation
4. Sounding and Ranging
The phenomenon known as the Doppler Effect was discovered by ______________.
1. Albert Einstein
2. Christian Doppler
3. Eric Doppler
4. Aristotle
_________ sonars transmit sound energy through the water to detect objects under the sea.
1. Passive
2. Active
3. Towed system
4. Submerged
___________ sonar equipment can be deployed from helocopters to detect submerged submarines.
1. Dipping
2. Active
3. Passive
4. Controlled
As concerns the flow of electricity, materials such as rubber, glass, and dry wood are known as
1. conductors.
2. insulators.
3. thermocouples.
4. D electric cells.
In order for a submarine to submerge, tanks known as ____________ tanks must be filled with water.
1. Ballast
2. Freeboard
3. Waterline
4. Hull
Ohm's law maybe expressed as an equation I=E/R, where "R" represents:
1. Resistance in ohms.
2. Voltage in volts.
3. Current in amperes.
4. None of the above.
Ohm's law maybe expressed as an equation I=E/R, where "E" represents:
1. Resistance in ohms.
2. Voltage in volts.
3. Current in amperes.
4. None of the above.
Submarines operate with:
1. Positive buoyancy.
2. Negative buoyancy.
3. Neutral buoyancy.
4. All of the above.
Anything with a density greater than water:
1. Will float.
2. Will sink.
3. Will achieve neutral buoyancy.
4. Will hover above water.
Anything with a density less than water
1. will float.
2. will sink.
3. will achieve neutral buoyancy.
4. will achieve negative buoyancy.
Objects immersed in fluids are pushed up with a force that______________the weight of the fluid displaced.
1. is greater than
2. is less than
3. is equal to
4. does not have any relationship to
_____ as well as liquids exert upward buoyant forces.
1. Solids
2. Gases
3. Minerals
4. Newtons
Greek scientist _______ found that an object immersed in a fluid is pushed up with a force that equals the fluid displaced.
1. Socrates
2. Plato
3. Archimedes
4. Achilles
Water that is taken on to a ship to lower its center of gravity is called:
1. Freeboard.
2. Waterline.
3. Ballast.
4. None of the above.
The geometric center of a ship's hull that is underwater is called
1. center of bouyancy.
2. center of gravity.
3. freeboard.
4. none of the above.
To provide weight to submarines, they are fitted with fillable water tanks called
1. diving tanks.
2. ballast tanks.
3. stabilizer tanks.
4. None of the above.
The amount of material present per unit of its volume is
1. ballast.
2. density.
3. freeboard.
4. buoyant force.
The line around a boat where the surface of the water meets it when it floats is the called
1. ballast.
2. waterline.
3. freeboard.
4. None of the above.
The portion of the floating ship above water is called
1. ballast.
2. waterline.
3. freeboard.
4. None of the above.
An object immersed in a fluid is pushed up with a force that equals the weight of the fluid, is known as
1. ballast.
2. density.
3. freeboard.
4. buoyant force.
A submarine is equipped with _________________ to enable it to submerge.
1. Ballast tanks
2. Balloon tanks
3. Fuel tanks
4. Ballast tubes
The individual ultimately responsible for the safe operations of a ship is the _____________.
1. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
3. Operations officer
4. Chief of Staff
After leaving port, considerable weight is moved to the topside of the ship, The center of gravity has been moved upward and now the ship may be in danger of ______________.
1. Reversing course
2. Returning to port
3. Capsizing
4. Deploying
The captain of USS Nassau is preparing to get underway and receives a forecast of poor weather in his immediate operational area. Prior to departing port, he should ensure that the _______________ is well below the waterline.
1. Center of gravity
2. Centerline
3. Waterline
4. Neutrally buoyant force
The captain of USS Shreveport is underway and receives a forecast of increasingly poor weather in his area of operations. What should he do to make his ship more stable?
1. Add weight topside
2. Increase the number of personnel on watch
3. Add ballast
4. Decrease ballast
Ballast tanks are generally emptied quickly by the use of ______________.
1. Water
2. Compressed air
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen
______________ tends to right a ship when it rolls.
1. Torque
2. Ballast
3. Density
4. Buoyancy
For a ship to have good stability it should have its center of gravity as ____________ as possible.
1. Low
2. High
3. Equal
4. Does not matter
In order for a submarine to surface once submerged it must force water out of its __________ tanks.
1. Ballast
2. Gravity
3. Density
4. Centerline
Dangerous rolls are less likely in stormy seas if ships have additional water low in the ship known as ____________.
1. Gravity
2. Density
3. Ballast
4. Waterline
The _____________________ is the geometric center of the portion of the ship's hull that is underwater.
1. Center of gravity
2. Center of mass
3. Center of density
4. Center of buoyancy
Objects in water float because of the principle known as ______________.
1. Buoyancy
2. Gravity
3. Density
4. Salinity
An object immersed in a fluid feels an upward force equal to the weight of the fluid being displaced by the object. This is known as ______________.
1. Archimedes' principle
2. Einstein's law of motion
3. Einstein's Law of Relativity
4. Bernoulli's Principle
Which of the following factors most significantly affect ship stability?
1. Center of gravity and buoyancy
2. Weight of the ship
3. Center of buoyancy
4. Waterline
If weight is added high on a ship, the ship will be more prone to _______________.
1. Capsize
2. Ballast down
3. Loose momentum
4. Become neutrally buoyant
When excessive weight is added high on a ship it tends to become ________________.
1. Unstable
2. Stable
3. Buoyant
4. Ballasted
The point of a ship around which it seems to move is known as the ________________.
1. Waterline
2. Center of gravity
3. Center of weight
4. Ballast
The scientific term used to describe how much of a material is present per unit of its volume is __________.
1. Apparent weight
2. Density
3. Gravity
4. Waterline
The ________________ of an object in water is equal to its weight in air minus its weight in water.
1. Apparent weight
2. Buoyant force
3. Density
4. Freeboard
A metal ship can float because of a principal known as ______________.
1. Buoyant force
2. Center of gravity
3. Apparent weight
4. Density
The true cause of electricity was found with the development of
1. Charged particles.
2. Atomic theory.
3. Electron theory.
4. Protons.
A substance that has few free electrons is called
1. Ionic.
2. An insulator.
3. A conductor.
4. Electron deficient.
A common name for the voltage produced by rubbing two materials together is
1. Static electricity.
2. Friction.
3. Dynamic charge.
4. Dry charge.
Wires in an electric circuit are designed to keep
1. electrical resistance high.
2. electrical current low.
3. electrical resistance low.
4. distance from source voltage to load as far as possible.
A significant feature of a battery composed of secondary cells such as an automobile battery is that it is
1. cheap.
2. light.
3. rechargeable.
4. None of the above answers are correct.
The direction of electron movement in any conductor is
1. from negative potential to positive potential.
2. from positive potential to negative potential.
3. between like charges.
4. in orbit around their nuclei.
If 4 battery cells of 2 volts and 1 amp each are connected in parallel, voltage and available current will be
1. 2 volts and 1 amp.
2. 2 volts and 4 amps.
3. 8 volts and 4 amps.
4. 4 volts and 2 amps.
Whirling around the nucleus of an atom in orbit, just as the planets whirl about the Sun, are subatomic particles called
1. protons.
2. neutrons.
3. electrons.
4. free elements.
Those subatomic particles found within the nucleus of an atom are
1. protons and electrons.
2. electrons and neutrons.
3. neutrons and protons.
4. conductors and insulators.
The flow of electrical energy through a conductor is called
1. an electric charge.
2. electric current, or electricity.
3. a negative charge.
4. a unit of conductance.
Material that permits the free movement of a large number of electrons, such as copper wire, is known as a good
1. conductor of electricity.
2. insulator of electricity.
3. example of electrolytic action.
4. electromotive force.
In order, the best conductors of electricity are
1. copper, aluminum, and silver wire.
2. aluminum, copper and silver wire.
3. copper, silver, and aluminum wire.
4. silver, copper, and aluminum wire.
The force that causes electricity to move in a conductor is called
1. current.
2. friction.
3. voltage.
4. negative potential.
Electromotive force may be produced by
1. friction and pressure.
2. heat and light.
3. chemical action and magnetism.
4. All of the answers are correct.
The study of electricity began with the ancient___________
1. Egyptians.
2. Jews.
3. Greeks.
4. Europeans.
Charged atoms are called_________
1. ohms.
2. conductors.
3. photoelectrons.
4. ions.
Substances that permit the free motion of a large number of electrons because of their atomic structure are called
1. Conductors.
2. Insulators.
3. Ions.
4. Electromotive force.
Substances that have few free electrons are called
1. Conductors.
2. Insulators.
3. Ions.
4. None of the above.
Voltage produced from light dislodging electrons from their orbits is called
1. thermocouple.
2. photoelectric.
3. None of the above.
4. Both A and B.
The unit used to measure the rate at which current flows is called
1. ohms.
2. amperes.
3. None of the answers are correct.
4. Both ohms and amperes.
A ______ is the fundamental unit of a battery.
1. watt
2. thermocouple
3. cell
4. None of the above.
Ohm's law maybe expressed as an equation I=E/R, where "I" represents:
1. Resistance in ohms.
2. Voltage in volts.
3. Current in amperes.
4. None of the answers is correct..
The rate at which current flows in a closed circuit is called the electric power rate, and its measure is the
1. Watt.
2. Ohm.
3. Ions.
4. Both A and B.
When voltage is doubled, power is
1. tripled
2. doubled
3. halved
4. doubled twice
Some substances have very ______free electrons and are therefore poor conductors.
1. active
2. many
3. passive
4. few
Which is NOT considered to be a method by which voltage is generated?
1. Magnetism
2. Friction
3. Light
4. Insulation
The flow of electrical energy through a conductor is called
1. voltage.
2. resistance.
3. electric current.
4. simple cell.
Which of the following is a good conductor?
1. copper wire
2. dry wood
3. rubber
4. glass
The smallest particles into which an element may be subdivided and still retain the fundamental characteristics of the original element are
1. molecules.
2. atoms.
3. neutrons.
4. electrons.
A ______ is a conducting pathway consisting of the conductor and the path through the voltage source.
1. electric circuit.
2. thermocouple.
3. None of the above.
4. Both a and b.
Two positive charged atoms will
1. attract each other.
2. thermocouple.
3. None of the above.
4. Both a and b.
The two types of electric current are
1. magnetic and photoelectric.
2. direct and indirect.
3. direct and alternating.
4. resistive and conductive.
Electrical resistance is measured in ___________
1. amperes.
2. ohms.
3. ions.
4. Both A and B
What type of waves can travel through a complete vacuum?
1. Sound
2. Vibrations
3. Water waves
4. Radio Waves
Which type of wave displaces a medium back and forth along the path of the wave?
1. Longitudinal waves
2. Transverse Waves
3. Adjacent Waves
4. Transit Waves
What does every electronic device use for basic operation?
1. Mechanical waves
2. Electromagnetic waves
3. Radar Waves
4. Light waves
How is the word Hertz abbreviated?
1. Ht
2. Hz
3. HR
4. HRZ
What is the basic continuous wave of a modulated wave referred to as?
1. Carrier wave
2. Undercurrent Wave
3. Sound wave
4. Radar wave
What is one complete sequence of the strength of a wave as it passes through a point in space?
1. Cycle
2. Wavelength
3. Frequency
4. Aptitude
Electronics is the basic study of _______________.
1. electromagnetic waves
2. space
3. computer systems
4. circuitry
The wave strength at a particular point along the wave is known as _____________.
1. cycle
2. frequency
3. amplitude
4. aptitude
Frequency is abbreviated by the letter(s)______________.
1. f
2. fr
3. hz
4. ap
The ________________ refers to the period of time required for one cycle.
1. wavelength
2. frequency
3. amplitude
4. aptitude
The term RADAR stands for __________________.
1. Radio detection and ranging
2. Radio
3. Radio ranging
4. Radio detection
Frequency modulation is abbreviated as _______________.
1. FM
2. FMOD
3. AM
4. FR
Amplitude modulation is abbreviated as __________
1. PM
2. AM
3. DW
4. FR
The abbreviation GCA refers to ________________.
1. Ground Controlled Aptitude
2. Ground Controlled Approach
3. Ground Contained Approach
4. Ground Controller's Attitude
The abbreviation ________________ refers to Carrier Controlled Approach.
1. CCA
2. CAA
3. CAR
4. CAP
The abbreviation CIC refers to ______________.
1. Combat Info Center
2. Center for Information Control
3. Carrier Integrated Control
4. Combat Integrated Control
What letters represent the Combat Direction Center?
1. CDC
2. COD
3. CODC
4. COMBC
The commanding officer is generally represented by the following abbreviation.
1. CO
2. XO
3. COM
4. COF
_____________ uses highly sophisticated electronics to counter enemy electromagnetic waves.
1. Electronic Warfare
2. Anti Submarine Warfare
3. Electronics
4. Electricity
__________ waves require some sort of material to travel or propagate.
1. Electromagnetic
2. Mechanical
3. Short Electronic
4. Both A and B
What type of wave often travels best in a complete vacuum?
1. Electromagnetic waves.
2. Mechanical waves.
3. Short Wave
4. None of the Above
All electronic devices use what kind of waves as the basis of their operations?
1. Mechanical
2. Frequency.
3. Electromagnetic
4. Cyclical.
A ______ is one complete sequence of values of the strength of the wave as it passes through a point in space.
1. frequency
2. amplitude
3. wave
4. cycle
The ___________ is the length of a cycle expressed in distance units.
1. frequency
2. amplitude
3. wave length
4. cycle
The __________ is the number of cycles repeated during one second of time.
1. frequency
2. amplitude
3. speed
4. cycle
_________occurs when there is a change in the density or atmosphere in which the wave is traveling.
1. Trapping
2. Diffraction
3. Refraction
4. Reflection
_________ causes the spreading of radio waves behind obstructions.
1. Trapping
2. Diffraction
3. Refraction
4. Reflection
______ occurs when a temperature inversion in the atmosphere holds cold air close to the Earth's surface.
1. Trapping
2. Diffraction
3. Refraction
4. Reflection
The following are all Navy radar general categories except:
1. Search
2. Rescue
3. Fire control
4. Special
The information gathered by most shipboard radar is presented and analyzed in a shipboard space called the
1. Combat Information Center.
2. All Weather Decoding Center.
3. Radar Decoding Center.
4. Satellite Decoding Center.
Radar can be used to track both friendly and potentially threatening
1. satellites.
2. aircraft.
3. ships.
4. None of the above.
Radio waves are ______ from the ionosphere, which is generally 30-250 miles above the Earth.
1. deflected
2. reflected
3. diffracted
4. diffracted
The time required to complete one cycle of the wave is:
1. cycle.
2. wavelength.
3. Frequency.
4. Period.
In _____ the frequency of the carrier wave is altered in accordance with the frequency of the modulating wave.
1. amplitude modulation
2. frequency modulation
3. radar
4. sonar
_____ radars are important parts of gun and missile systems.
1. Fire control
2. Search
3. Detection
4. Echo
There are two kinds of waves classified by their form. They are longitudinal waves and ________ waves.
1. light
2. rapid
3. horizontal
4. transverse
The type of wave is produced in a stringed instrument when the string is plucked?
1. Light wave
2. Rapid wave
3. Horizontal wave
4. Transverse wave
There are three methods by which a carrier wave maybe be modulated to convey information. These are amplitude, frequency, and ________ modulation.
1. pulse
2. current
3. watt
4. cycle
Which of the following kinds of waves can be felt by human beings?
1. Vibrations
2. Radio
3. Radar
4. Light
Select four correct leadership techniques.
1. Getting cooperation, establishing discipline, giving orders, and commands
2. Understanding people, reviewing techniques, giving commands and orders
3. Establishing discipline, getting cooperation, understanding people, and giving orders
4. None of the above
If there is one key to successful leadership, it is probably _________.
1. Truthfulness
2. Fairness
3. Honesty
4. Courage
NJROTC leaders must get to know their subordinates. This personal quality of a leader is referred to as?
1. Common Sense
2. Good Judgment
3. Concern for People
4. Tact
When a Cadet is supportive of the organization or Unit, he or she is showing
1. Enthusiasm
2. Loyalty
3. Optimism
4. Honesty
To do his or her job, a leader must associate with seniors, peers, and the general public. These associations are called ___________ ___________.
1. Personal Relations
2. Essential Courage
3. Magnetic Quality
4. Effective Leadership
The cadet who portrays confidence in oneself, mankind and a cause is showing he or she has _________.
1. Enthusiasm
2. Tact
3. Optimism
4. Faith
What is the art of leadership?
1. Gaining respect from your personnel
2. Confidence
3. Art of winning obedience
4. All of the above
Which of the following positions are offered as leadership positions in your NJROTC Unit?
1. Drill Team Leader, special committees
2. Squad or Platoon Leader
3. Staff billets, Color Guard
4. All of the above
The cadet who shows lack of self-importance, not being boastful about oneself is demonstrating _____________.
1. Truthfulness
2. Enthusiasm
3. Modesty
4. Tact
The term used to indicate pride in an organization or being proud of membership in a group is
1. Personal interest.
2. Confidence.
3. Morale.
4. Esprit de corps.
What three attributes of a good leader cannot exist apart from each other?
1. Moral Courage, Honesty, and Enthusiasm
2. Health, Energy, and Optimism
3. Concern for people, Self-Confidence, and Modesty
4. Tact, Common Sense, and Self-Confidence
The cadet that demonstrates the leadership “Can do” attitude is demonstrating ___________ as a leader.
1. Honesty
2. Enthusiasm
3. Loyalty
4. Optimism
The cadet that shows through their actions that they are true, honest, correct, straight forward and trustworthy demonstrates ______________.
1. Optimism
2. Enthusiasm
3. Truthfulness
4. Loyalty
The cadet who has the ability to see what must be done and takes care of obligations for his or her unit is showing a
1. sense of humor.
2. sense of self-confidence.
3. sense of responsibility.
4. sense of loyalty.
The most traditional trait of a leader is ___________.
1. Faith
2. Courage
3. Health
4. Sense of Humor
Leadership depends upon
1. The job to be done.
2. The followers.
3. The leader.
4. All of the above.
As a leader, you will be expected to handle
1. Compound assignments.
2. Simple assignments.
3. Complex assignments.
4. None of the above.
What is (are) a good leadership trait(s)?
1. Drive
2. Initiative
3. Courage
4. All of the above
Essential qualities of a naval leader include
1. Faith
2. Modesty
3. Hard work
4. All of the above
Persons with potential can develop leadership skills through
1. Following others.
2. Training and experience.
3. Following non-leaders.
4. None of the above.
Drill teaches self-discipline because it
1. allows you freedom to go your own way.
2. is demanding and punishing.
3. requires the unit to act as one person.
4. none of the above.
The Cadet that uses this type of leadership will get the job done quickly. What do we call this type of leadership?
1. Permissive
2. Telling
3. Autocratic
4. Democratic
There are several styles of leadership. The __________ style of leadership is centered on the leader.
1. Authoritarian
2. Democratic
3. Telling
4. Permissive
Which one of the five approaches to leadership is the most democratic?
1. Joining
2. Telling
3. Consulting
4. Selling
Self-discipline is an orderly way of doing things that comes from
1. your parents.
2. experience and training.
3. military life.
4. regulations and hardship.
There are five approaches to leadership. Of the five, which one is the most autocratic?
1. Consulting
2. Selling
3. Joining
4. Telling
The main reason for practicing a speech is for
1. theatrics.
2. conciseness.
3. confidence.
4. organization.
Which leadership approach tends to produce the best results over long periods of time?
1. Joining approach, in which the leader goes along with the majority
2. Telling approach, in which the group does not participate in the decision-making process
3. Autocratic style of leadership
4. Democratic style of leadership, tailored to job requirements
To become a good leader, one must be able to communicate. The skills needed for communication is
1. listening and speaking.
2. reading and writing.
3. both A and B.
4. none of the above.
The autocratic style of leadership is centered on the
1. command.
2. leader.
3. unit.
4. all of the above.
What do we call the style of leadership that means participation of followers, as well as the leader, in the leadership process?
1. Authoritarian
2. Drilling
3. Position
4. Democratic
The democratic style of leadership means
1. participation of the leader.
2. participation of followers.
3. teamwork to accomplish a goal.
4. all of the above.
In the Navy when you are given authority, the two burdens that come with it are
1. Power and obedience.
2. Enforcement and tradition.
3. Excitement and performance.
4. Responsibility and accountability
Discipline is
1. harsh and unfair.
2. an orderly way of doing things.
3. a trait only great leaders have.
4. commanding someone to do something.
Self-discipline begins with
1. Self-control
2. Individual readiness
3. Being well-rested
4. Good conduct
The Commanding Officer of the Naval Air Station at Pensacola, was informed that a hurricane was due to hit the air station at 1415. He decided on what action he would take and informed all of his department heads about what to do.

What style of leadership is this?
1. Telling
2. Selling
3. Testing
4. Consulting
The Commanding Officer (CO) requested input from the crew on a problem he had aboard his vessel. The crew made recommendations, through the chain of command, to the CO on the best possible solution to the problem which was affecting the operation of their vessel. The CO reviewed the possible resolutions and selected a solution. When the decision was made, all hands were informed.

What type of leadership style is this?
1. Telling
2. Selling
3. Testing
4. Consulting
Just before entering the shipyard, the commanding officer (CO) of a ship held all-officers briefing. At this briefing he set forth policies regarding cleanliness, quality of work, cumshaw, and the likes. One division officer went back to his division and decided that his supervisors should develop a program to carry out the CO's plans, and that everyone would go along with whatever decisions they made for the division.

What type of leadership did the division officer show?
1. Selling
2. Testing
3. Consulting
4. Joining
Among the more important objectives of a Navy public affairs program is establishment of the very best relation's possible between members of a naval command and citizens of adjacent communities or in the homeport area of a ship. The public affairs officer (PAO) won the acceptance of the crew by informing them that his decisions were good for all persons concerned. He showed the crew how they would benefit from carrying out his decisions.

The PAO's leadership approach was?
1. Telling
2. Selling
3. Testing
4. Consulting
You are the senior petty officer in your section. In order to solve a major problem in your section, you ask selected petty officers to give their solutions to the problem. As the senior petty officer, you choose a possible solution and let the group react to it. When a final decision is made, the group is informed.

Your leadership approach is?
1. Telling
2. Selling
3. Testing
4. Consulting
What is one of the leader’s most effective ways of letting his subordinates know they are important?
1. Parents
2. SNSI
3. ASNI
4. Personal Contact
One of the best ways to start a conversation with a subordinate is to begin talking about the subordinate's
1. family.
2. work.
3. personal life.
4. health.
Motivation in the Navy can directly affect
1. morale.
2. readiness.
3. reenlistment.
4. All of the above.
All effective leaders must be skillful in
1. giving awards.
2. communicating.
3. guiding.
4. preparing reports.
Esteem needs consist of
1. self-respect, status, and recognition by others.
2. freedom from danger and threats.
3. affection, love, and friendship.
4. food, water, and shelter.
Survival needs consist of
1. freedom from danger and threats.
2. self-respect, status, and recognition by others.
3. affection, love, and friendship.
4. food, water, and shelter.
Social needs consist of
1. affection, love, and friendship.
2. food, water, and shelter.
3. freedom from danger and threats.
4. self-respect, status, and recognition by others.
High group morale is usually the result of effective
1. followership.
2. conditions.
3. knowledge.
4. leadership.
A goal of leadership is to develop good
1. affection for one's self.
2. security skills.
3. morale.
4. All of the above.
Leaders can help to motivate subordinates by
1. allowing them to use their judgment.
2. increasing their workloads.
3. providing opportunities for each person to develop their personal talents.
4. all of the above.
Which leadership skill below can be measured by inspections of personnel and their equipment?
1. Conversation
2. Motivation
3. Listening
4. Morale
Most people desire to learn
1. new skills and more challenging work.
2. about others' personal business.
3. more about their basic needs.
4. all of the above.
What is some job needs that the Navy can fulfill?
1. Pride and mastery of the job
2. Professional growth and job responsibilities
3. Recognition
4. All of the above
Which one of the following is NOT one of the three things he/she should remember not to ask when starting a conversation with a subordinate?
1. Talking to a subordinate about someone they can trust or listen to them
2. A question about what they are doing or planning to do
3. A question about their private affairs
4. The key to getting acquainted is a sincere and unselfish interest in the people being approached.
Which of the following leadership skills may include putting a subordinate on report, reprimanding him/her, or not recommending them for advancement?
1. Followership
2. Punishment
3. Constructive criticism
4. Threats
Which of the following motivating factors is considered most important?
1. Outstanding pay
2. Completing the job on time
3. Understanding the meaning of the job that must be done
4. Feeling that one's work is meaningful
Nothing will destroy morale faster than
1. regular inspections of personnel and equipment.
2. insistence on discipline and efficiency.
3. a schedule that includes a mix of work and recreation.
4. inactivity and boredom.
What general rules should be used by leaders when they build morale in their units?
1. Always be friendly, courteous and tactful
2. Know each person by name
3. Be consistent and fair in assigning duties
4. All of the above

Naval Science II

Quiz